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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-303
Title : Wireless LAN Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. The Sniffer posts a Local Router condition when:
A. A host receives frames from a local router instead of a remote router
B. No routing is available on a subnet
C. A host sends its frames to a host instead of a router on a subnet
D. A host sends its frames to the router’s DLC instead of the DLC of a host on the same subnet
Answer: D

2. What is the Network part of a host that has an address of 10.27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A

3. 27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A
8. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B

4. The definition of a supernet is:
A. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network segments
B. A block of separate network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network segments
C. A block of separate network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network segments
D. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network segments
Answer: D

5. IP addresses consist of unique ______-bit address space.
A. 16
B. 32
C. 1514
D. 2048
Answer: B

6. The relationship of ports, addresses and sockets is best represented by which of the following statements?
A. A socket is an alternative name for a port
B. A socket is a combination of port and IP address
C. A port is an application and IP address
D. A socket is a pair of IP addresses
Answer: B

7. The mask /26 will allow _______ hosts on a subnet.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 62
D. 64
Answer: C

8. The acronym RFC stands for _______.
A. Requested File Control
B. Requesting Further Clarification
C. Revised for Comments
D. Request for Comments
Answer: D

9. A logical AND operation of the address 1.2.3.4 with the mask 255.255.255.0 would result in the value:
A. 1.0.0.0
B. 1.2.3.255
C. 1.2.3.0
D. 255.255.255.4
Answer: C

10. This protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable end-to-end communication.
A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. ICMP
Answer: C

11. A message is associated with which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data Link
Answer: A

12. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-530
Title : TCP/IP Network Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. A message is associated with which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Data Link
Answer: A

2. The definition of a supernet is:
A. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network segments
B. A block of separate network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network segments
C. A block of separate network addresses that creates a smaller address space for use on multiple network segments
D. A block of contiguous network addresses that creates a larger address space for use on multiple network segments
Answer: D

3. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B

4. This protocol is connection-oriented and provides reliable end-to-end communication.
A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. ICMP
Answer: C

5. The relationship of ports, addresses and sockets is best represented by which of the following statements?
A. A socket is an alternative name for a port
B. A socket is a combination of port and IP address
C. A port is an application and IP address
D. A socket is a pair of IP addresses
Answer: B

6. IP addresses consist of unique ______-bit address space.
A. 16
B. 32
C. 1514
D. 2048
Answer: B

7. The mask /26 will allow _______ hosts on a subnet.
A. 30
B. 32
C. 62
D. 64
Answer: C

8. 27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A
8. Dynamic NAT is typically used for which type of host access?
A. Outside to inside
B. Inside to outside
C. Inside to firewall
D. Firewall to firewall
Answer: B

9. The Sniffer posts a Local Router condition when:
A. A host receives frames from a local router instead of a remote router
B. No routing is available on a subnet
C. A host sends its frames to a host instead of a router on a subnet
D. A host sends its frames to the router’s DLC instead of the DLC of a host on the same subnet
Answer: D

10. What is the Network part of a host that has an address of 10.27.42.100, with a mask of 255.255.0.0?
A. 10
B. 27
C. 27.42
D. 100
Answer: A

11. A logical AND operation of the address 1.2.3.4 with the mask 255.255.255.0 would result in the value:
A. 1.0.0.0
B. 1.2.3.255
C. 1.2.3.0
D. 255.255.255.4
Answer: C

12. The acronym RFC stands for _______.
A. Requested File Control
B. Requesting Further Clarification
C. Revised for Comments
D. Request for Comments
Answer: D

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-511
Title : Network Analysis & Troubleshooting

1. When troubleshooting a slow application, which of the following could be indicators of an application-specific problem?
A. Commands with timely responses
B. Large or full-size frames
C. Long Delta times before each client request
D. None of the above
Answer: D

2. OSI layer 4 is concerned with __________.
A. ACKs and flow control working correctly
B. Routing or frame delivery
C. Connections working correctly
D. Physical problems
Answer: A

3. This is the Detail window for this question.
Which of the following statements is true for this Decode Detail window?
A. One of the UDP ports should be ephemeral
B. UDP is the Station layer protocol
C. NETB is the Connection layer protocol
D. UDP is the Transport layer protocol
Answer: D

4. Which of the following protocols are summarized when the Expert Overview pane and Station layer are selected?
A. ARP, Ethernet, Cisco CDP
B. ICMP. IP, IPX
C. TCP, UDP
D. NetBIOS, SMB
Answer: B

5. The OSI Transport layer corresponds to the Expert __________ layer.
A. Data Link
B. Connection
C. Session
D. Network
Answer: B

6. This is the Decode Hex window for this question.
If you were going to create a Data Pattern filter on LOGIN it would be helpful to know that the letter is at offset __________.
A. 38
B. 39
C. 3A
D. 3B
Answer: B

7. 0.1 initiated a ping
B. 192.168.0.26 initiated a ping
C. 192.168.0.26 has a MAC address of 001111195130
D. 192.168.0.1 should not repeat the ICMP: Echo
Answer: A
3. This is the Detail window for this question.
Which of the following statements is true for this Decode Detail window?
A. One of the UDP ports should be ephemeral
B. UDP is the Station layer protocol
C. NETB is the Connection layer protocol
D. UDP is the Transport layer protocol
Answer: D
4. When troubleshooting a slow application, which of the following could be indicators of an application-specific problem?
A. Commands with timely responses
B. Large or full-size frames
C. Long Delta times before each client request
D. None of the above
Answer: D
5. This is the Decode Hex window for this question.
If you were going to create a Data Pattern filter on LOGIN it would be helpful to know that the letter is at offset __________.
A. 38
B. 39
C. 3A
D. 3B
Answer: B

8. To save a trace file as a compressed file from the Sniffer you must use the extension:
A. CAP
B. zip
C. enc
D. caz
Answer: D

9. This is a screen from the Decode Summary window.
Which of the following statements is true for this capture?
A. 192.168.0.1 initiated a ping
B. 192.168.0.26 initiated a ping
C. 192.168.0.26 has a MAC address of 001111195130
D. 192.168.0.1 should not repeat the ICMP: Echo
Answer: A

10. This is a screen from the Expert Objects detail.
Which of the following statements are true for this Object detail screen? (Choose all that apply.)
A. This is the detail for a Duplicate IP Address alarm
B. This is the detail for a Local Routing alarm
C. KinetxA14015 is a robable Prouter
D. This is the detail for a Window Exceeded alarm
E. This is a connectionless Conversation
Answer: BE

11. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

12. This is the network map.
If a Sniffer Network Analyzer captured a frame at point A going from User to a server somewhere on the Internet, that frame would contain: (Choose all that apply.)
A. An IP destination address of 24.1.1.1
B. An IP destination address of the server
C. A DLC destination address of Cisco 36CD65
D. A DLC source address of Cisco 36CD65
E. An IP source address of 192.168.1.101
Answer: BDE

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-520
Title : Application Performance Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. Distance latency can be improved by __________.
A. Relocating client computers to the same switch as the server
B. Relocating the server to the client location
C. Increasing the bandwidth on the slowest link
D. Reducing the amount of data transmitted across the network
E. Upgrading the interconnecting devices (routers and switches) between the client and the server
Answer: AB

2. 0.002.750.000, as a measure of time, can also be represented as __________.
A. 27 ?milliseconds
B. 2.75 microseconds
C. 2.75 milliseconds
D. 2.75 nanoseconds
Answer: C

3. If we do not know the speed of all of the links between the client and the server, we can __________ to calculate bandwidth delay.
A. Use our network diagram
B. Estimate based on the 3-way handshake
C. Use the speed of the link nearest the server
D. Use the Line Speed displayed in the Sniffer
Answer: A

4. We can calculate __________ for a file transfer by dividing file size by link speed.
A. Bandwidth latency
B. Application efficiency
C. Congestion delay
D. Throughput
Answer: A

5. The Predictive Analysis Model requires __________ to be documented as part of the application profile.
A. Task duration and application turns
B. Application turns and Relative time
C. Cumulative bytes and number of tasks
D. File size and total time
Answer: A

6. To accurately calculate bandwidth latency we must know __________. (Choose all that apply)
A. The fastest link speed in the path between client and server
B. The slowest link speed in the path between client and server
C. The link speed between the client and the firewall
D. The distance between the client and the server (based on .66 the speed of light)
E. All of the above
Answer: B

7. When conducting a predictive analysis, one of the input parameters to the model is the user task time in seconds. If you do not know this value you can estimate how long the task took (round up to whole seconds) to get a fairly accurate prediction for the task.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

8. Predictive analysis describes the worst case performance of an application based on the design and configuration of the network.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

9. Round-trip distance latency between Phoenix and Singapore (9,081 miles or 14,529 km) is __________.
A. About 165 milliseconds
B. About 270 milliseconds
C. About 500 milliseconds
D. About 1 second
Answer: A

10. If the predictive analysis results in response time that is slightly more than what users are experiencing, what action should we take?
A. Review the parameters used in the predictive analysis, this should not happen
B. Analyze the network, it can not be the application
C. Analyze the network then the application, it may be either one
D. Nothing, this is normal
Answer: D

11. Output from the predictive analysis model should match data in the __________.
A. Sniffer Statistics tab
B. Application Profile
C. Ping command
D. All of the above
Answer: B

12. When optimizing application efficiency, an improvement in efficiency from the current 90% to an efficiency of 95% or more should result in __________:
A. Significantly increased response time
B. Significantly decreased response time
C. Significantly increased network utilization
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-521
Title : Application Performance Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. _______ is the amount of time, based on the engineering of the network, to complete a task.
A. Throughput
B. Delay
C. Access time
D. Latency
Answer: B

2. When using Application Intelligence, Server Time may be defined as __________.
A. The total time required to send a request and receive a response
B. The total time packets are on the network for a particular flow
C. The total time it takes for a packet to travel from client to server based on TCP handshakes
D. The net time for the server to respond to a client request
Answer: D

3. One component in an application turn is __________.
A. Server response time
B. Network process time
C. Application response time
D. Client acknowledgement time
Answer: A

4. When using Application Intelligence, End-to-End Response Time may be defined as __________.
A. The total time required to send a request and receive a response
B. The total time packets are on the network for a particular flow
C. The total time it takes for a packet to travel from client to server based on TCP handshakes
D. The net time for the server to respond to a client request
Answer: A

5. __________ is a protocol used to perform Control and Signaling functions in a VoIP conversation.
A. Session Initiation Protocol
B. Real-Time Streaming Protocol
C. Cisco Skinny Client Control Protocol
D. All of the above
Answer: D

6. To accurately calculate __________ we must know the slowest link speed in the path between client and server
A. Distance latency
B. Congestion delay
C. Bandwidth latency
D. Round-trip time
Answer: C

7. A large Window size used by a client could cause __________.
A. The server to consume more resources
B. Increased number of ACKs to be sent
C. Increased delay when frames are lost
D. None of the above
Answer: D

8. When creating a filter in the Sniffer to select only the traffic to or from the client for a particular conversation, the best approach is to focus on a __________.
A. TCP well known port number
B. TCP unknown port number
C. TCP ephemeral port number
D. TCP port number in the range 512-1024
Answer: C

9. The TCP 4-way handshake is used to __________.
A. Indicate the start of a flow of data
B. Identify the client request parameters
C. End a connection
D. Establish a connection
Answer: C

10. When reviewing trace data in a multi-tier application, application server requests can be associated with database responses using __________.
A. TCP port numbers
B. Request ID
C. Raw data in the database response
D. Formatted data in the application response
Answer: A

11. An application that is sensitive to Jitter is primarily sensitive to __________.
A. Network congestion
B. Bandwidth latency
C. Distance latency
D. Application turns
Answer: A

12. What does a Window value of 8760 in a TCP header mean?
A. The sender is confirming the 8760 bytes have been sent
B. The sender has 8760 bytes in its buffer
C. The sender has received a total of 8760 bytes
D. The sender has buffer space for 8760 more bytes
Answer: D

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-510
Title : Troubleshooting with Sniffer Portable/Sniffer Distributed

1. Delta time, such as 0.046.357, is read as:
A. hours.minutes.seconds
B. seconds.milliseconds.microseconds
C. milliseconds.microseconds.nanoseconds
D. microseconds.milliseconds.nanoseconds
Answer: B

2. The most common type of physical error seen in networks today is:
A. Electrical interference
B. Frame collisions
C. Hardware malfunction
D. Duplex mismatch
Answer: A

3. What OSI layer handles data encryption?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Presentation
D. Service
Answer: C

4. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is:
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
Answer: D

5. When physical errors occur they are often interpreted as data in the Sniffer. Key values to look for that may indicate a physical problem are:
A. AAAA
B. 5555
C. FFFF
D. All of the above
Answer: D

6. The frame type that contains a DLC Ethertype field is:
A. Novell aw?frame
B. Ethernet version Two
C. 802.3 frame
D. 802.3 with SNAP
Answer: B

7. A Novell aw?frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) __________.
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
Answer: B

8. An 802.3 frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) __________.
A. DLC Ethertype field
B. IP header
C. IPX header
D. LLC header
Answer: D

9. 3 length field followed by a(n) __________.
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
Answer: B
2. The most common VLAN grouping technique is __________.
A. Protocol
B. Segment
C. Multicast
D. Port
Answer: D

10. Which of the following is a valid filename to use when saving a trace file in the Sniffer with compression applied?
A. Compressed.cap
B. FTP.zip
C. Trace1.enc
D. TCP-error.caz
Answer: D

11. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

12. In the Sniffer Expert analyzer, the Service Objects relate to which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Session
D. Transport
Answer: A

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-222
Title : Wireless LAN Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. Which Monitor display shows various counts and the BSSID on each channel?
A. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
B. Matrix > Channel Surfing tab
C. Dashboard > Channel Surfing tab
D. Protocol Distribution > Channel surfing tab
Answer: A

2. ETSI BRAN is directly responsible for which wireless technology?
A. Bluetooth
B. HiperLAN2
C. HomeRF SWAP
D. WECA
Answer: B

3. An Extended Service Set configuration includes which of the following devices?
A. Mobile units and multiple Access Points connected to wired LANs
B. Mobile units with no Access Points
C. Mobile devices and a single Access Point connected to a wired LAN
D. Multi-homed mobile devices
Answer: A

4. IEEE 802.11b supports the following data packet rates:
A. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps
B. 1, 2, 5, and 11 Mbps
C. 1, 2.5, 5 and 11 Mbps
D. 1, 2, 5 and 11.5 Mbps
Answer: A

5. Which Monitor display shows the channel each device is using?
A. Host Table > MAC tab
B. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
C. Host Table > 802.11 tab
D. Global Statistics > Utilization Dist. tab
Answer: C

6. 5, and 11 Mbps
B. 1, 2, 5, and 11 Mbps
C. 1, 2.5, 5 and 11 Mbps
D. 1, 2, 5 and 11.5 Mbps
Answer: A
3. Access Points do NOT do the following:
A. Forward frames between wireless and/or wire-attached stations
B. Buffer frames for stations out of range or in power save mode
C. Route frames between different subnets
D. Forward frames between wireless devices on the same subnet
Answer: C
4. An Extended Service Set configuration includes which of the following devices?
A. Mobile units and multiple Access Points connected to wired LANs
B. Mobile units with no Access Points
C. Mobile devices and a single Access Point connected to a wired LAN
D. Multi-homed mobile devices
Answer: A
5. Which three of the following devices support 802.11b WLAN software and hardware? (Select three that apply)
A. Desktop PC
B. Laptop PC
C. Analog cellular telephone
D. Personal Digital Assistant
Answer: ABD

7. Which Expert layer does NOT show wireless objects ?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Connection
D. Global
Answer: D

8. You can set wireless triggers using which three criteria? (Select three that apply)
A. Enable Alarms, then choose various wireless frame types
B. Choose a previously defined capture filter
C. Enable Alarms, then choose the channel you wish to observe
D. Enable channel surfing, then use a station address filter
Answer: ABD

9. Which Monitor application shows the minimum, maximum and current signal strength of each device?
A. Matrix > MAC Detail
B. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
C. Host Table > 802.11 tab
D. Multiple History Samples
Answer: C

10. 5 Mbps
Answer: A
3. Access Points do NOT do the following:
A. Forward frames between wireless and/or wire-attached stations
B. Buffer frames for stations out of range or in power save mode
C. Route frames between different subnets
D. Forward frames between wireless devices on the same subnet
Answer: C
4. An Extended Service Set configuration includes which of the following devices?
A. Mobile units and multiple Access Points connected to wired LANs
B. Mobile units with no Access Points
C. Mobile devices and a single Access Point connected to a wired LAN
D. Multi-homed mobile devices
Answer: A
5. Which three of the following devices support 802.11b WLAN software and hardware? (Select three that apply)
A. Desktop PC
B. Laptop PC
C. Analog cellular telephone
D. Personal Digital Assistant
Answer: ABD
6. What data transfer rates does IEEE 802.11a support?
A. 1 and 2 Mbps
B. 1, 2.5, 5 and 11 Mbps
C. 6 to 54 Mbps
D. 1, 2, 5 and 11.5 Mbps
Answer: C
7. Which Expert layer does NOT show wireless objects ?
A. Application
B. Session
C. Connection
D. Global
Answer: D
8. Which Monitor display shows the channel each device is using?
A. Host Table > MAC tab
B. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
C. Host Table > 802.11 tab
D. Global Statistics > Utilization Dist. tab
Answer: C
9. Which Monitor display shows various counts and the BSSID on each channel?
A. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
B. Matrix > Channel Surfing tab
C. Dashboard > Channel Surfing tab
D. Protocol Distribution > Channel surfing tab
Answer: A
10. Which Monitor application shows the minimum, maximum and current signal strength of each device?
A. Matrix > MAC Detail
B. Global Statistics > Channel Surfing tab
C. Host Table > 802.11 tab
D. Multiple History Samples
Answer: C
11. True or false? You must use both a wireless and Ethernet card to monitor and sniff a wireless network.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

11. Access Points do NOT do the following:
A. Forward frames between wireless and/or wire-attached stations
B. Buffer frames for stations out of range or in power save mode
C. Route frames between different subnets
D. Forward frames between wireless devices on the same subnet
Answer: C

12. What data transfer rates does IEEE 802.11a support?
A. 1 and 2 Mbps
B. 1, 2.5, 5 and 11 Mbps
C. 6 to 54 Mbps
D. 1, 2, 5 and 11.5 Mbps
Answer: C

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-323
Title : Microsoft Windows 2000 Network Analysis and Troubleshooting

1. _______ is accessed via LDAP protocols.
A. LSARPC
B. Active Directory
C. HTTP
D. Kerberos
Answer: B

2. WINS is _______ in a Windows 2000 environment.
A. Available, but may be turned off
B. Removed completely
C. Used in preference to Active Directory
D. Replaced by Browser protocol
Answer: A

3. Active Directory is a _______ directory service.
A. Linear
B. Flat
C. Embedded object
D. Hierarchical
Answer: D

4. True or False? In Windows 2000, BDCs are read-only controllers, just as with NT.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

5. Direct Hosting (SMBTCP) is a protocol "shim" used to:
A. Replace NetBIOS
B. Access directory services
C. Authenticate
D. Register and resolve host names
Answer: A

6. Kerberos is a protocol used to:
A. Replace NetBIOS
B. Access directory services
C. Authenticate
D. Register and resolve host names
Answer: C

7. Which term describes a database of forest-wide information in Windows 2000?
A. Global Catalog
B. Tree
C. Realm
D. Domain
Answer: A

8. When a DHCP server comes on-line in a domain, it will query _______ to discover if it is authorized to provide DHCP services.
A. Another DHCP server
B. Active Directory
C. Local routers
D. APIPA clients
Answer: B

9. The LDAP protocol is used by a domain DHCP server to determine if it is ________.
A. In a domain or workgroup
B. Operating within its scope
C. Using APIPA or RFC 1918 addresses
D. Authorized to issue IP addresses
Answer: D

10. Which term describes a database of forest-wide information that holds an abbreviated listing of Active Directory Information?
A. Trees
B. Global Catalog
C. Enhanced DNS
D. Realms
Answer: B

11. In _______, the concept of a read-only BDC is gone.
A. Legacy NT 4 domains
B. Active Services
C. SMTP
D. Active Directory
Answer: D

12. SNTP is a protocol used to:
A. Replace NetBIOS
B. Synchronize time
C. Transfer mail
D. Register and resolve host names
Answer: B

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-111
Title : Troubleshooting and Management with Sniffer Distributed

1. When configuring a Monitor adapter, disable all protocols except:
A. TCP/IP
B. IPX
C. Sniffer Driver
D. WINS
Answer: C

2. When deploying Sniffer Distributed in your network, where should Sniffer analyzers be placed?
A. On backbones and uplinks
B. On critical ports and segments
C. On WAN connections
D. All of the above
Answer: D

3. Which of the following is true about RMON+ ?
A. is basically the same as Expert
B. is capable of capturing traffic but not monitoring
C. RMON+ capture can be looked at by an agent with the Expert option
D. B and C
Answer: C

4. Controlling and viewing agents is the job of which of the following components?
A. Sniffer Distributed Console
B. Sniffer Distributed Agent
C. Sniffer Monitor
D. Sniffer Portable Network Analyzer
Answer: A

5. The WAN600 (WANE) adapter provides_____ RS/V ports.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

6. What protocol does the Distributed Appliance used to communicate with the console? :
A. DCOM
B. SCOM
C. WCOM
D. JOCM
Answer: A

7. Sniffer Distributed Agents need at least ___ adapter(s).
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: B

8. With Sniffer Distributed RMON+ :
A. Capture and decode occurs and stays at the Sniffer Distributed Appliance, not the console
B. Capture and decode does not occur
C. Has the same functionality as Expert
D. Has no support for Expert Analysis Add-on
Answer: A

9. True or false? Full Duplex Ethernet and ATMbook are the only agents supported with pods.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

10. ____ is a protocol that enables software components to communicate directly over a network in a reliable, secure and efficient manner.
A. Distributed Console Out-of Band
B. Distributed Communication Module
C. Distributed Component Object Model
D. None of the above
Answer: C

11. Which of the following are components of the Sniffer Enterprise Management Architecture?
A. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Sniffer Monitors
B. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Sniffer Distributed Consoles
C. Sniffer Distributed Consoles and Sniffer Monitors
D. Sniffer Distributed Agents and Switch Monitors
Answer: B

12. With Sniffer Distributed, which of the following monitor adapters are supported?
A. 10/100 Ethernet
B. 4-port Ethernet
C. Token Ring
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-540
Title : Advanced Troubleshooting with InfiniStream Network Mgmt

1. For testing, it is useful to convert your _______ into _______.
A. data / units of measurement
B. hypothesis / an if-then statement
C. hypothesis / a conclusion
D. conclusion / if-then statement
Answer: B

2. A one to many relationship is indicative of:
A. Backdoors
B. Clients sending email to a relay server
C. Password guessing
D. Peer-to-Peer
Answer: D

3. The easiest way to identify data for further analysis is to _______.
A. create an alias
B. group multiple protocols together
C. sort on port number
D. select all ephemeral ports
Answer: C

4. To see user names sent to an FTP server, you should view _______.
A. the Expert Service layer objects
B. the Expert Application layer objects
C. the Advanced tab in the mining interface (Quick Select)
D. the Names tab in the mining interface (Quick Select)
Answer: B

5. Consider this mining filter. Which description most accurately describes what it does?
A. It includes all packets to and from network 192.168.1.0/24.
B. It includes all packets that have sources and destinations within network 192.168.1.0/24.
C. It includes all packets that are not to or from network 192.168.1.0/24.
D. Nothing. No packets would pass this filter.
Answer: C

6. Applications that use ephemeral ports on both sides of a connection are difficult to mine, because:
A. The ephemeral ports cannot be predicted
B. They all use the same port, TCP/1024
C. The well-known ports cannot be predicted
D. The ephemeral ports can be predicted but the port pairings are always different
Answer: A

7. Consider this illustration of a data mining filter. What is wrong with it?
A. The filter only allows packets that are sent to HTTP servers on their well-known port. It would only show commands without replies. This filter is incomplete.
B. The filter only allows packets that are both to and from the well-known port TCP/80 (HTTP). Both source and destination port cannot be 80. Nothing would pass the filter.
C. It would also allow UDP packets to and from port 80 (HTTP), which does not make sense, since HTTP is a TCP-based protocol.
D. Nothing. It will capture normal data to and from TCP/80 (HTTP) servers.
Answer: B

8. Maintaining a baseline can aid in detecting bandwidth denial of service attacks by:
A. Listing status codes associated with denial of service.
B. Revealing significant changes in protocol activity and bandwidth through comparison.
C. Showing ports known to be associated with bandwidth denial of service.
D. Listing source IP addresses know to send denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

9. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with network security auditing?
A. Inspection of passwords
B. Examining a network for signs of misuse
C. Troubleshooting network application efficiency
D. Looking for conformance to policy
Answer: C

10. 1.0/24.
B. It includes all packets that have sources and destinations within network 192.168.1.0/24.
C. It includes all packets that are not to or from network 192.168.1.0/24.
D. Nothing. No packets would pass this filter.
Answer: C
8. Time duration and speed are _______.
A. primary limitations of mining and analysis
B. not relevant to InfiniStream
C. only related to Expert analysis
D. relevant, but secondary issues
Answer: A

11. Mining FTP frames for both the Control and Data connections is difficult, because:
A. The server listens on TCP/20 and on ephemeral addresses that are difficult to predict.
B. The server listens on TCP/21 and multiple addresses that cannot be predicted.
C. The server listens on TCP/21 and ephemeral ports that are difficult to predict.
D. Many implementations of FTP exist that use varying well-known ports.
Answer: C

12. Most Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs) listen on _________ ports?
A. all well-known ports
B. any port below 512
C. dynamically assigned ports, usually below port 1024
D. dynamically assigned ports, usually above port 1023
Answer: D