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Exam : Hitachi HH0-440
Title : Storage Architect – Performance & Virtualization

1. Which three key metrics are needed for sizing industry standard applications? (Choose three.)
A.IO read/write ratios
B.port speed
C.IO rates and data transfer rates
D.cache read hit ratios
E.number of ACP/BED pairs
Answer: ACD

2. Which three actions provide a way of increasing the number of Tags available to a database volume in an enterprise storage system? (Choose three.)
A.Build the volume across multiple LUNs with host-based logical volume manager striping.
B.Construct the LUN using LUSE with LDEVS from different RAID Groups.
C.Use a VDEV LUN from a VDEV striping pool (LDEV concatenation).
D.Map the LUN across more host paths.
E.Increase the HBA LUN Queue Depth value.
Answer: ADE

3. Which level of Write Pending is normal for a busy OLTP Universal Storage Platform (USP) system adequately managing the destaging of writes?
A.0% to 20%
B.20% to 30%
C.30% to 40%
D.40% to 50%
Answer: B

4.
Which condition is implied by these values?
A.These are normal values for busy LUNs with a LUN queue depth of 8.
B.There are no more Tags available on this storage port due to heavy IO load.
C.There are no more Tags available for these LUNs at the port due to heavy IO load.
D.The HBA LUN queue depth is set incorrectly.
Answer: A
6. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A.insufficient cache
B.loss of redundancy in write cache
C.heavy random writes to RAID5
D.heavy random writes to SATA drives
E.failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
Answer: CDE
7. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing.
Which two actions should be considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A.Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B.Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C.Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D.Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: AB
8. Which three parameters will help to calculate a server’s maximum LUN queue depth to avoid the risk of SCSI timeouts? (Choose three.)
A.The number of active LUNs mapped to a storage port.
B.The number of active servers in the cluster accessing the active LUNs.
C.The number of command tags supported by the storage port.
D.The number of disk drives supporting the LUN configuration.
E.The total number of LUNs mapped to the storage port.
Answer: ABC

5. Which three statements are true for Hitachi Global Link Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose three.)
A.HGLAM manages multiple instances of Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM).
B.HGLAM assigns load balancing algorithms only at the server level.
C.HGLAM can alert which server is impacted when a fabric switch goes down.
D.HGLAM reports IO rate at the HBA level.
E.HGLAM can report a USP cache failure.
Answer: ACD

6. Solaris IOSTAT shows that response times are degrading for a number of LUNs and that these LUNs are 100% busy. The active queue values are in a range up to, but not exceeding 8, and the wait queue values are in the range from 0 to 5 when the active queue is 7 or 8.
Which condition is implied by these values?
A.These are normal values for busy LUNs with a LUN queue depth of 8.
B.There are no more Tags available on this storage port due to heavy IO load.
C.There are no more Tags available for these LUNs at the port due to heavy IO load.
D.The HBA LUN queue depth is set incorrectly.
Answer: A

7. Which Solaris MPXIO multi-pathing scheme should be used to avoid non-owning access with HDS modular storage systems?
A.load_balance_none
B.load_balance_rr
C.load_balance_lba
D.load_balance_fixed
Answer: A

8. Which VMware multi-pathing scheme should be used to avoid non-owning access with HDS modular storage systems with multiple VMware servers?
A.Most Recently Used (MRU)
B.Fixed
C.Round-Robin
D.Extended Round-Robin
Answer: B

9. In the Universal Storage Platform (USP) family, what is the maximum number of external ports that one external LDEV can be attached to?
A.2
B.4
C.8
D.16
Answer: C

10. Click the Exhibit button.
Which three conditions are likely causes for the write pending rates illustrated in the exhibit? (Choose three.)
A.insufficient cache
B.loss of redundancy in write cache
C.heavy random writes to RAID5
D.heavy random writes to SATA drives
E.failure to distribute workload among sufficient array groups
Answer: CDE

11. Performance monitor data indicates that CHP utilization may be causing a bottleneck in a Universal Storage Platform (USP) series system during periods of intense processing.
Which two actions should be considered to increase IOPS during the bottleneck periods? (Choose two.)
A.Configure the paths using high-speed mode.
B.Spread the load across more CHP processors and paths.
C.Spread the load across more RAID Groups.
D.Spread the load across more LUNs.
Answer: AB

12. Which two workloads gain a performance improvement by using Tagged Command Queuing? (Choose two.)
A.multi-user transaction database access
B.sequential, single-threaded scan
C.archival writes to tape drive
D.corporate mail and notes server
Answer: AD

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-280
Title : HDS Implemetation Specialist – Storage Management

1. Your 5 TB Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) Pool contains one hundred 50 GB LDEVs and is running out of space.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You create a new Pool and concatenate it with the existing Pool.
B. You create new LDEVs out of free space which are used as HDP Pool Volumes to expand your HDP Pool.
C. You install a new RAID group and create HDP Pool Volumes in this RAID group and add these to your HDP Pool.
D. You create a new Pool which meets the space requirements and you migrate the Virtual Volumes into this newly created Pool.
Answer: BC

2. A customer has an IBM storage array and is planning to use it as External Storage on the USP V to migrate an application LUN from external to internal.
Would this migration be disruptive for the application?
A. No, because the customer is using Tiered Storage Manager.
B. No, because the customer has a ShadowImage copy of the LUN.
C. Yes, because the server has to perform a reboot to see the LUN.
D. Yes, because the application must reconfigure the LUN presented by the USP V.
Answer: D

3. You support a customer that will be implementing a Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) solution. They plan on using HDvM to manage several USP600s and Adaptable Modular Storage (AMS) systems.
Which statement is correct to manage the AMS systems with HDvM?
A. Storage Navigator is required to use the Physical View.
B. Mapping Guard is required to set up security for the LUNs.
C. Storage Navigator Modular Link and Launch must be set up.
D. Disklock is required to use a lock system for devices accessed from HDvM.
Answer: C

4. A customer is deploying a new USP V into the data center across various servers and operating systems. During the planning stage you identify Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) 5.8 as the preferred path management software on the AIX servers.
Which three must you include in a prerequisite check list for the deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Check that Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) agent is not installed.
B. Include additional planning for any Virtual I/O (VIO) servers.
C. Check that the Object Data Manager (ODM) update is installed.
D. Check that Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) is compatible with HDLM.
E. Check the operating system levels and fix packs against the release notes.
Answer: BCE

5. Your customer currently has Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) version 4.7 running on ten of their production servers. They want to simplify the management of running those HDLM instances.
What are two prerequisites for the hosts that are running HDLM to be managed by Hitachi Global Link Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the HDLM instances to version 5.7 or higher.
B. Install Provisioning Manager agent 3.5 or later on the hosts running HDLM 4.7.
C. Install Hitachi Device Manager agent 3.5 or later on the hosts running HDLM 4.7.
D. Install Hitachi Device Manager agent 3.5 or higher after the upgrade to HDLM 5.2.
Answer: AD

6. You have a customer that is running Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) to manage their 9900Vs, USPs, and Adaptable Modular Storage (AMS) systems. Your customer wants to change the port number used by all of the AMS systems for TCP/IP communications.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The port number for the AMS systems cannot be changed.
B. You must use Storage Navigator Modular to change the port setting in the AMS system.
C. You set the new port number in the Services file for the machine where HDvM server is installed.
D. You set the new port number in the Server.Properties file for the machine where HDvM is installed.
Answer: BC

7. Your customer is using Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) to manage their storage systems. They also want to provision storage with Hitachi Provisioning Manager.
To allow provisioning of storage, which two tasks must be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Install HDvM agent.
B. Install Provisioning Manager.
C. Install CIM agent extensions.
D. First allocate the host to a Resource group.
Answer: AB

8. A customer has Hitachi USP V, Hitachi AMS, EMC DMX, and HP EVA storage systems attached to twenty Windows servers and ten Solaris servers.
In this scenario, which two Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) configurations are supported? (Choose two.)
A. HDLM for UNIX for all storage systems
B. HDLM for Windows for all storage systems
C. HDLM for UNIX for Hitachi storage systems only
D. HDLM for Windows for Hitachi storage systems only
Answer: BC

9. In Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM), which two steps are required when discovering a host? (Choose two.)
A. Provide the administrator password.
B. Provide the IP address of the host to be discovered.
C. Install the appropriate CIM extension on the server you want to manage.
D. Click the Set Default User name and Password link and provide up to three user names and passwords.
Answer: BC

10. Which two operating systems running on the Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) hosts are supported by Hitachi Global Link Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose two.)
A. IBM AIX 5.3
B. IBM z/OS 1.6
C. Sun Solaris 8
D. Windows NT 4.0
Answer: AC

11. A Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) customer has switches, hosts, and storage. They want to reduce their Get all Element Details (GAED) times.
Which recommendation should you make?
A. Use segmented replication.
B. Put everything in one discovery group.
C. Use the GAED wizard to reduce the time of each element.
D. Increase the memory of the server to reflect the number of discovery groups.
Answer: A

12. A customer wants to use Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) on a USP V.
Which two statements are true regarding the mapping of Dynamic Provisioning (DP)-Volumes to the application? (Choose two.)
A. Any LDEV can be used as a DP-Pool Volume.
B. Any type of RAID group is available for DP-Pool Volumes.
C. The size of a DP-Pool is limited by the size of the DP-Pool LDEVs (max 1 TB).
D. The size of a DP-Pool is limited by the number of the DP-Pool LDEVs (max 256).
Answer: BD

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-270
Title : HDS Implmenetation Specialist-Business Continuity Exam

1. A customer has a 20TB database at his primary site. The database is copied using TrueCopy to a second site about 20km away. There are problems with the link to the second site. The second copy of the database should always be the same as the primary copy.
Which solution should be implemented?
A. Specify FENCELEVEL=DATA on the TrueCopy links.
B. Specify FENCELEVEL=NEVER on the TrueCopy links.
C. Create a third copy of the database using ShadowImage at the primary site.
D. Create a third copy of the database using Universal Replicator at a third site.
Answer: A

2. After executing a paircreate command you find that the secondary volume is mounted to a system.
Which action sequence should be used to correct this situation?
A. Unmount the secondary volume.
B. Unmount the secondary volume then execute the paircreate command again.
C. Execute pairsplit -S, unmount the secondary volume, then execute the paircreate command again.
D. Unmount the secondary volume, execute pairsplit -S, then execute the paircreate command again.
Answer: C

3. A customer wishes to create copies using Copy-on-Write SnapShot of a database containing a large number of changes — about 50 percent for each day. The customer also wants to keep five copies of the database though access to the copies is not high.
Which statement is correct?
A. The pool should reside on external storage to keep costs low.
B. The pool logical volumes should be the same size as the production logical volumes.
C. The database should be copied using ShadowImage and not Copy-on-Write SnapShot.
D. The pool should be at least three times the size of the database if Copy-on-Write SnapShot is used.
Answer: D

4. Your customer must decide if TrueCopy Asynchronous or TrueCopy Synchronous is the best solution.
Which three statements describe TrueCopy Synchronous characteristics? (Choose three.)
A. TrueCopy Synchronous guarantees an RPO of zero.
B. TrueCopy Synchronous turn around times become unacceptable at longer distances.
C. TrueCopy Synchronous maintains consistency of data with time stamping and sequence numbering.
D. TrueCopy Synchronous can register a maximum of sixteen remote control units (CUs) for one local CU.
E. TrueCopy Synchronous reports the ending status to the host only after the S-VOL update copy operation is complete.
Answer: ABE

5. Which two statements describe the characteristics of asynchronous replication? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a mechanism for copying data across any distance.
B. An incomplete operation is rolled back at both locations, guaranteeing that the remote copy is always an exact image of the primary.
C. After a successful write of data to the primary storage system, the application continues processing without waiting for an acknowledgement of a successful write at the secondary storage.
D. After a disruption, business operations can resume immediately at the remote site, starting from the exact point the primary site stopped. Only I/Os that were in-flight at the instant of disruption will be lost.
Answer: AC

6. A customer must implement a Disaster Recovery environment for a mission critical UNIX database. The production and recovery sites are 30km apart and a DWDM infrastructure is in place between the locations. The requirement is for zero data loss in the event of a disaster.
Which HDS replication technology meets the customer’s requirements?
A. Universal Replicator
B. TrueCopy Synchronous
C. TrueCopy Asynchronous
D. TrueCopy cascaded from a local ShadowImage
Answer: B

7. You are working on a Business Continuity plan for a customer. The customer states, "This business process is important for us but we can afford one hour data loss and two hours are tolerable to recover."
Which two statements correctly reflect the business process requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The business recovery time objective is one hour.
B. The business recovery time objective is two hours.
C. The business process recovery point objective is one hour.
D. The business process recovery point objective is two hours.
Answer: BC

8. A customer wishes to copy a database on external storage controlled by a Universal Storage Platform over 10km using TrueCopy Synchronous.
Which HiCommand product is used to manage the replication?
A. HiCommand Device Manager (HDvM)
B. HiCommand Protection Manager (HPtM)
C. HiCommand Replication Monitor (HRpM)
D. HiCommand Tiered Storage Manager (HTsM)
Answer: A

9. A customer has a multi-target Three Data Center (3DC) implementation to protect a mission critical UNIX application. The production host crashes, but the array and network are still working. The customer wants to bring up the application on a host at the local data center and still maintain two remote copies of the data.
What must be performed first at the local data center?
A. Perform swap takeover for the HUR pairs.
B. Perform swap takeover for the TrueCopy pairs.
C. Perform Delta Resync between the local and remote arrays.
D. Perform Delta Resync between the local and production arrays.
Answer: B

10. What are two purposes of a TrueCopy Asynchronous Consistency Group? (Choose two.)
A. It controls multiple volume pairs as a single entity.
B. It provides a real-time copy of the P-VOL on the S-VOL.
C. It allows priority to be assigned to a group of volume pairs.
D. It ensures data is written to the S-VOL in a consistent manner.
Answer: AD

11. Which two configurations are good candidates for a Three Data Center (3DC) Multi-target type replication without purchasing additional hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Two local 9980v connected through a SAN to Windows 2003 servers with a TrueCopy Asynchronous link to a distant 9980v 300km apart connected through a SAN to disaster recovery Windows 2003 servers.
B. Two local USPs connected through a SAN to Windows 2003 servers both having a TrueCopy Asynchronous link to a distant USP 300km apart connected through a SAN to disaster recovery Windows 2003 servers.
C. One primary USP connected through a SAN to Windows 2003 servers having a TrueCopy Synchronous link to a disaster recovery local USP. A secondary site 300km apart with a USP connected through a SAN to Windows 2003 servers.
D. A primary USP connected through a SAN to Windows 2003 servers. A secondary USP connected through a SAN to Sun servers. Both USPs being cross copy connected by TrueCopy synchronous. A disaster recovery distant USP 300km apart off-line to any CPU connected to local USPs by a Universal Replicator.
Answer: BC

12. You are working on a Business Continuity plan for one of your customers. The customer states, "This business process is very important for us so we cannot afford any data loss. However we can tolerate three hours to recover."
Which two statements correctly reflect the business process requirements? (Choose two.)
A. The business recovery time objective is zero.
B. The business recovery time objective is three hours.
C. The business process recovery point objective is zero.
D. The business process recovery point objective is three hours.
Answer: BC

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-120
Title : Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations – Modular Exam

1. What is the function of HDD Roaming in the Adaptable Modular Storage family?
A. It allows you to perform background HDD-scrubbing.
B. It allows you to monitor the system for HDD failures.
C. It allows you to increase RAID Group capacity dynamically.
D. It allows you to specify RAID Group with HDDs regardless of RKA.
Answer: D

2. Customers are increasingly finding new ways for information technology departments to provide value to business.
How does Services Oriented Storage Solutions (SOSS) help our customers accomplish this?
A. by matching the business value of data to the appropriate storage tier
B. by increasing customer profitability by managing operational expenses
C. by establishing Industry Standard Best Practices into everyday operations
D. by providing a business-centric approach for aligning IT storage resources with business requirements
Answer: D

3. A data warehouse application needs access to current data at multiple times during the day for billing and data mining.
What is used to create the online copy of the OLTP server within the same storage system?
A. TrueCopy
B. ShadowImage
C. Copy-on-Write Snapshot
D. TrueCopy Extended Distance
Answer: B

4. An AMS or WMS storage system requires the PC running Storage Navigator Modular 2 to be attached to the system.
Which communication interface is used by Storage Navigator Modular 2 to talk with the system?
A. USB
B. LAN
C. iSCSI
D. Fibre Channel
Answer: B

5. A customer requires a new modular storage array which will use parity for data protection. When a drive fails in a RAID 5 Group, the remaining disks are each a single point-of-failure. A requirement is that the vendor must minimize the amount of time the array is in a single point-of-failure state following a disk failure.
Which two features of the AMS2300 support the requirement? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 6
B. RAID 5+1
C. Dynamic Sparing
D. Fast Disk Rebuild
Answer: AC

6. A customer has a WMS100 array to run an application with low performance and availability requirements.
Which WMS100 configuration would meet the requirements?
A. SATA or FC disks
B. one or two controllers
C. one or two host FC ports per controller
D. one or two back-end loops per controller
Answer: B

7. A storage administrator wants to use TrueCopy to replicate volumes between an AMS2100 and an AMS2300.
How many S-VOL copies can be made from a single P-VOL?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: A

8. Which AMS2300 feature can be used to isolate the I/O of a MS Exchange application from a backup application?
A. Host Storage Manager
B. Cache Partition Manager
C. Virtual Partition Manager
D. Cache Residency Manager
Answer: B

9. What are two advantages of Services Optimized Storage Solutions? (Choose two.)
A. It delivers storage infrastructure components that can be integrated to match application requirements.
B. It offers the ability to combine Fibre Channel SAN storage with IP-based storage.
C. It provides database administrators with the ability to provision and manage storage.
D. It offers application-centric, quality-of-service (QoS) data delivery, based on: performance, availability, cost, and protection requirements.
Answer: AD

10. Which two steps are required before using Hitachi Replication Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Replication Manager Agent must be installed.
B. RAID Manager or CCI must be installed.
C. Business Continuity Manager must be installed.
D. Hitachi Device Manager must be installed prior to the installation of Replication Manager software.
Answer: BD

11. HDS Adaptable Modular Storage models AMS2100 and AMS2300 provide efficient cost-effective storage.
Which three attributes characterize the AMS product line? (Choose three.)
A. high availability
B. cache partitioning
C. ease of management
D. large-scale virtualization
E. dynamic provisioning
Answer: ABC

12. Which feature in Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) allows an administrator to remove an LU and a path without restarting the server?
A. path failover
B. dynamic reconfiguration
C. dynamic deletion
D. Disk Manager
Answer: C

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-200
Title : Certified Modular Integration Specialist Exam

1. You are using the Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI for the first time. You want to change to a different mode from default mode. What is the first thing you should do, before changing to a different mode?
A. go to Add-> Password and add the password
B. go to Add-> Change Mode and select the mode
C. go to Settings-> Password and register the password
D. go to Settings-> Change Properties and set the mode option to other modes
Answer: C

2. You have assembled and installed a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?subsystemRK and a RKA into a 19 inch rack. The system parameters have also been configured. The customer now needs to use port 0A in order to connect HP-UX with a LUN 0 and Solaris with a LUN 0 on the same port. Which two will enable this configuration? (Choose two.)
A. install the LUN SECURITY license
B. create two host groups on port 0A
C. install the LUN-MANAGEMENT license
D. configure port 0A to work in HP-UX mode
Answer: BC

3. Which statement is true about cache slots on the Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2GB per controller.
B. Each controller has two cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 1GB or 2GB per controller.
C. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 512MB or 1GB DIMMS for a maximum of 2 GB or 4GB per controller.
D. Each controller has four cache slots and each slot can hold 256MB or 512MB DIMMS for a maximum of 1 GB or 2 GB per controller.
Answer: B

4. 20
Answer: C
9. What is the vibration tolerance of a Hitachi Thunder 9570?subsystem in operation, if installed near large generators located on the floor above or below the subsystem?
A. 2.5 m/s2 or less
B. 3.0 m/s2 or less
C. 3.5 m/s2 or less
D. 4.0 m/s2 or less
Answer: A
10. A customer has purchased a floor model of a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem set up as RK + RKA + H2H Deskside Kit. Which two connections between the RK and the RKA are valid? (Choose two.)
A. HSSDC#0 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA.
B. HSSDC#0 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#0 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#0 of RKA.
C. HSSDC#0 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA.
D. HSSDC#0 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#1 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA and HSSDC#1 on Controller#1 of RK is connected to HSSDC#0 on ENC Unit#1 of RKA.
Answer: AC

5. A customer has Sun Netra Servers mounted on a Hitachi Data Systems?19 inch rack. You need to mount a RK and a RKA on the same rack. What is the amps/PS rating you need to use for both the RK and RKA together in order to ensure that the PDU is not overloaded when two power supplies are used on both the RK and the RKA and the source is 100V?
A. 3.20
B. 5.10
C. 6.30
D. 10.20
Answer: C

6. Which three operating systems can be used to install and run HDLM? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. OS/2
C. HP-UX
D. VxWorks
E. Microsoft Windows 2000
Answer: ACE

7. You are connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem using Hitachi?Resource Manager GUI. You have created LUNs for 12D+1P RAID group, and now you want to set up one spare disk. Given the following steps:
A.select Settings-> Logical Settings
B. select Settings-> Configuration Settings
C. select the Logical Settings tab
D.select Settings-> Logical Unit-> Set Spare Drive
E.select the disk that you want to set up as spare
F.select the Spare Drive tab
A. B, F, E
B. B, F, G
C. D, C, E
D. F, C, G
Answer: B

8. Ten LUNs must be recognized by the QLogic HBA on Microsoft Windows 2000 Server which is connected to a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem. What is the system parameter that needs to be set up?
A. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Standard mode
B. in the modify Host Group option, select CCHS mode in Host connection mode
C. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP2 mode in Host connection mode
D. in the modify Host Group option, select HISUP mode in Host connection mode 2
Answer: D

9. What is the vibration tolerance of a Hitachi Thunder 9570?subsystem in operation, if installed near large generators located on the floor above or below the subsystem?
A. 2.5 m/s2 or less
B. 3.0 m/s2 or less
C. 3.5 m/s2 or less
D. 4.0 m/s2 or less
Answer: A

10. You are performing a Microprogram install for a customer on their Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem. You receive message code RBA000 on the Web Access information messages. What does this message indicate?
A. Installation failed.
B. Installation failed in a part of the drive.
C. Downgrade check result was "Not Good."
D. There was another system when installation was started.
Answer: C

11. What is the operational humidity requirement at a site when installing a Hitachi Thunder 9500V?Series subsystem?
A. 5% to 90%
B. 8% to 80%
C. 10% to 75%
D. 10% to 90%
Answer: B

12. Which component on the first RKA is used to connect to the RK in a Hitachi Thunder 9570V?Series subsystem?
A. PDB
B. ENC unit
C. Controller unit
D. AC Power Unit
Answer: B

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-110
Title : Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations – Enterprise Exam

1. Which three Virtual Partitioning Manager activities can be performed online? (Choose three.)
A. move FICON ports between SLPRs
B. move RAID groups between CLPRs
C. move cache memory between CLPRs
D. move target fiber ports between SLPRs
E. move external fiber ports between SLPRs
Answer: BCD

2. Which three operating systems are supported by Storage Navigator? (Choose three.)
A. HP-UX
B. IBM AIX
C. SUN Solaris
D. Novell Netware
E. Microsoft Windows XP
Answer: ACE

3. What is the maximum number of the backend paths in a Hitachi TagmaStore USP1100?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 128
D. 256
Answer: B

4. How does an administrator configure HiCommand Device Manager to support SCSI ports?
A. through the GUI as per normal configuration
B. through the CLI as SCSI has different requirments
C. HiCommand Device Manager does not support SCSI ports
D. HiCommand Device Manager automatically configures SCSI ports
Answer: C

5. HDS has two solutions in the enterprise content archival domain; Message Archival for Email and Message Archive for Compliance. Which three benefits will a customer gain from implementing these solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Mailboxes are never filled up.
B. Spam problems are resolved.
C. Legal penalties can be avoided.
D. Computer viruses are minimized.
E. Conceptual search within attachments.
Answer: ACE

6. A company is using Hitachi Universal Replicator to replicate between remote sites. What happens after they experience a large sustained burst of I/O to Universal Replicator volumes?
A. S-Vol remains consistent.
B. Cache fills with write I/O and forces the P-Vol to split.
C. Application latency increases due to replication activity.
D. Cache fills with write I/O and forces the P-Vol to suspend.
Answer: A

7. Which two types of Message Archive Solutions are delivered by HDS? (Choose two.)
A. Message Archive for E-mail
B. Message Archive for Compliance
C. Message Archive for Compression
D. Message Archive for Disaster Recovery
Answer: AB

8. Which database does HiCommand Device Manager 4.0 and above use?
A. Oracle
B. HiRDB
C. Interbase
D. SQL server
Answer: B

9. Hitachi NAS Blade for TagmaStore?USP uses SyncImage. Which three actions can the customer perform using this feature? (Choose three.)
A. Create up to 128 SnapShots
B. Create differential SnapShots.
C. Duplicate FileSystem data using SnapShot.
D. Use the Hitachi Backup Restore product to restore data using this differential SnapShots.
E. Maintain consistency even if the customer was using the FileSystem at the time of the error.
Answer: BCD

10. What is the maximum cached bandwidth of the Hitachi TagmaStore USP crossbar switch architecture?
A. 17GB/s
B. 34GB/s
C. 64GB/s
D. 68GB/s
Answer: D

11. Which HDS feature feature significantly improves the performance of an application with high I/Os?
A. LUSE
B. Quick IO
C. Bypass cache
D. Hitachi disk ALBs
Answer: A

12. What is the Hitachi best practice for zoning?
A. zoning is optional
B. single HBA zoning ?one HBA per zone
C. single server zoning – All HBAs from one server in a zone
D. single operating system zoning ?all HBAs from one type of OS in a zone
Answer: B

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-220
Title : HDS Certified Implmenter-Modular

1. 0.0.17 or 192.168.0.17.
D.Connect using a crossover cable to the maintenance LAN port on controller 0 and connect to 10.0.0.16 or 192.168.0.16.
Answer: D
8. To which LAN should the Hitachi TagmaStore AMS200 controllers be attached?
A.the user’s intranet
B.the AMS200 internal LAN
C.the secure management LAN
D.the Storage Navigator Modular
Answer: C

2. What is the purpose of the System Assurance Registration Documentation (SARD) process?
A.To ensure accurate and complete record of pre-installation data.
B.To guarantee that Hitachi Data Systems equipment is insured during transportation.
C.To inform a channel partner that equipment is available for shipment.
D.To validate configuration changes for customers with a premium service contract.
Answer: A

3. You are adding an additional RKAJAT rack to an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS storage system containing RKAJ and RKAJAT racks.
Which tool is used to prepare the addition of the new RKAJAT?
A.CCI
B.ACE Tool
C.WebTools
D.HiCommand Device Manager
Answer: B

4. You connect the user LAN ports to an Ethernet switch while installing an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS500 and are unable to communicate although the link LED is illuminated. You are not sure if the user LAN IP addresses are correct.
How can you reset the IP addresses to known values?
A.Connect using a null modem cable to the RS232 port and change the user LAN IP addresses.
B.Press the reset button on the controller three times to reset the IP addresses to factory settings.
C.Connect using a crossover cable to the maintenance LAN port on controller 0 and connect to 10.0.0.17 or 192.168.0.17.
D.Connect using a crossover cable to the maintenance LAN port on controller 0 and connect to 10.0.0.16 or 192.168.0.16.
Answer: D

5. An Authorized Service Provider (ASP) partner has downloaded the System Assurance Registration Documentation (SARD) from the Hitachi Data Systems PartnerXchange Web site to prepare for the installation of an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS200.
Which document is relevant for the partner to use as part of the SARD process?
A.the SARD Excel worksheet
B.the Warranty Accreditation form
C.the Service Acceptance Agreement form
D.the AMS200 System Assurance Document
Answer: A

6. There exist Two Command Devices exist on an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS500. ShadowImage has been running for some time. For maintenance reasons, the AMS500 must be restarted. After restarting, only one Command Device is still available.
How will the horcm instances behave in this situation?
A.HORCM will be able to start with a warning message to the startup log.
B.HORCM will not start unless the second Command Device is available again.
C.HORCM will connect to Storage Navigator Modular and define a second Command Device.
D.HORCM will start but go into a wait status until the second Command Device is back again.
Answer: A

7. Hitachi Data Systems Sales and Services representatives are involved in preparing for the delivery of storage systems at a customer site.
Which three areas will these representatives be asked to look at when following the System Assurance Registration Documentation (SARD) process? (Choose three.)
A.equipment delivery date
B.customer contact details
C.equipment configuration details
D.equipment and feature availability
E.site access details for equipment delivery
Answer: BCE

8. What are two ways to ensure a secure Fabric? (Choose two.)
A.SNMP
B.zoning
C.LUN Security
D.Brocade Fabric Manager
Answer: BC

9. 0.17.
D.Connect using a crossover cable to the maintenance LAN port on controller 0 and connect to 10.0.0.16 or 192.168.0.16.
Answer: D
8. To which LAN should the Hitachi TagmaStore AMS200 controllers be attached?
A.the user’s intranet
B.the AMS200 internal LAN
C.the secure management LAN
D.the Storage Navigator Modular
Answer: C

10. HiCommand Device Manager can be used to link Universal Volume Manager to manage the Hitachi TagmaStore Universal Storage Platform (USP).
Which three steps must first be performed? (Choose three.)
A.Specify an external volume in the external subsystem.
B.Stop the Common Component and the Device Manager Server.
C.Verify whether DAMP (for Web) runs on the Common Component.
D.Use Device Manager to map and manage the internal and external subsystems.
E.Specify an external subsystem port to be connected to the external port, which will be managed as a specific host for external volumes in the external subsystem.
Answer: ADE

11. A customer wants to install an HBA Emulex LP10000 in a Windows 2003 server connected to an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS500.
Where would you check the validity of the implementation?
A.Emulex Web site
B.AMS maintenance manual
C.HiFire on HDS intranet/extranet
D.Storage Navigator Modular User’s Guide
Answer: C

12. You want to manage an Hitachi TagmaStore AMS500 with Storage Navigator Modular (SNM), but you want to be sure that no one else has access to make changes at the same time.
What are two ways to do this? (Choose two.)
A.Install SNM for Web on only one host and give access to this host for storage administrators.
B.Install SNM Graphical User Interface on several hosts and install the Password Protection key.
C.Install SNM Graphical User Interface on several hosts but connect to the AMS500 in maintenance mode.
D.Install SNM Graphical User Interface on several hosts, and on the SNM restrict changes to the first logon user.
Answer: AB

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-330
Title : HDS Storage Manager-Business Continuity Enterprise

1. The CCI instance needs to communicate with the storage system using the Command Device.
Which command should be executed to discover the name of the Command Device on a Windows server?
A.raidscan -x findcmddev hdisk 0,20
B.raidscan -find commanddev hdisk 0,20
C.raidscan -x find commanddev hdisk 0,20
D.raidscan -find commanddevice hdisk 0,20
Answer: A

2. You are looking at the possibility of configuring the Raid Manager software.
Which three devices could be used as a CCI Command Device? (Choose three.)
A.3390-3 LUN
B.LUSE LUN
C.OPEN-V LUN
D.OPEN-3 LUN
E.Virtual LVI/LUN
Answer: CDE

3. The CCI instance has failed to start.
What is the most likely cause?
A.The Command Device is labeled.
B.The environment variable HORCC_MRCF is set.
C.The environment variable HORCMINST is not set.
D.The IP address is not referenced in the HORCM file.
Answer: D

4. Which two statements describe the Command Device on UNIX systems? (Choose two.)
A.The volume designated as the Command Device is a raw device.
B.The volume designated as the Command Device is a block device.
C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the CCI software.
D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy software and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the storage system.
Answer: AD

5. On a Windows system, how do you make sure that the environment parameter is set correctly to use CCI for ShadowImage operations instead of TrueCopy operations?
A.Verify that HORCC_MRCF is set to 1.
B.Verify that HORCM_MRCF is not set.
C.Verify that HORCC_MRCF is set to 0.
D.Verify that HORCM_MRCF is set to 0.
Answer: A

6. Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)
A.The Command Device is for CCI communications and can be fully utilized by other applications.
B.The Command Device is dedicated to CCI communications and should not be used by any other applications.
C.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the storage system.
D.The Command Device accepts TrueCopy and ShadowImage software read and write commands that are executed by the CCI software.
Answer: BC

7. Where do you find the "horcmstart.sh" command in a default CCI installation in a UNIX system?
A./usr/bin/
B./usr/sbin
C./HORCM/
D./HORCM/usr/bin/
Answer: D

8. A pairresync operation is performed on a ShadowImage pair in a PSUE state.
What is the result of the pairresync operation?
A.The pairresync completes immediately.
B.All data on the P-Vol are copied to the S-Vol.
C.The pairresync returns an error because of the PSUE state.
D.The bitmaps are used and only changed tracks are copied from the P-Vol to the S-Vol
Answer: B

9. On a Windows system, how do you verify that the environment parameter is correctly set to use CCI for TrueCopy operations instead of ShadowImage operations?
A.Make sure that HORCM_MRCF is set to 1.
B.Make sure that HORCC_MRCF is not set.
C.Make sure that HORCC_MRCF is set to 0.
D.Make sure that HORCM_MRCF is set to 0.
Answer: B

10. Which two statements describe the Command Device? (Choose two.)
A.The Command Device is user selected.
B.The Command Device is system selected.
C.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which controls the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.
D.The Command Device is a dedicated logical volume on the system which functions as the interface to the CCI software on the UNIX/PC host.
Answer: AD

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-400
Title : Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity

1. A customer’s regulatory requirements require that they will have valid data at the recovery site regardless of any equipment or logical failure in the system or environment.
How many DR site point-in-time copies are required if they want to be able to perform recovery testing?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

2. A customer is using TrueCopy Asynchronous to continuously replicate a database’s data and log volumes.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A database checkpoint should be forced immediately upon failover.
B.In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
C.In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D.At recovery time, the database will rollback all uncommitted transactions in the logs.
Answer: CD

3. What are two best practices for DR testing? (Choose two.)
A.Tests should be done at least twice a year.
B.The secondary copy of data (B) can be used as the DR test copy.
C.Testing should only be performed when new applications are added.
D.When using a point-in-time copy solution, another copy (D) should be used for DR testing purposes.
Answer: AD

4. A customer is using TrueCopy to replicate a database’s data and log volumes.
Which strategy will assist the customer with recovery from logical corruption such as a mistakenly dropped table?
A.Use ShadowImage to create point-in-time copies for recovery.
B.Use TrueCopy for data volumes only. Use log shipping to transfer individual transactions to the recovery facility.
C.Manage database checkpointing so that logs retain sufficient transactions to allow playback up to the corruption event.
D.Inflow control should be used to throttle incoming write traffic so that updates can be identified and prevented prior to their application onto the secondary volumes.
Answer: A

5. Which formula is appropriate to use when calculating resource requirements for TrueCopy Asynchronous?
A.Bandwidth = [(peak write Mb/sec) / network compression ratio] + safety margin
B.Journal Capacity = (peak write Mb/sec) * anticipated network outage duration (minimum of 6 GB)
C.Number of RAID groups for journal volumes = (peak write Mb/sec) / (total throughput per RAID group)
D.Host delay = 2 * [(distance between MCU and RCU) / (speed of light in glass)] + losses due to network overhead
Answer: A

6. What are two risks when extending a production SAN over distance? (Choose two.)
A.A telecommunications outage will segment the fabric.
B.RSCN storms may ensue from intermittent telecommunications issues.
C.Any differences in domain IDs on the fabric switches between the sites will keep the fabrics from merging.
D.Some Fibre Channel frames may occasionally cross the inter-site links and reach the incorrect storage array.
Answer: AB

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-210
Title : HDS Certified Implmenter – Enterprise

1. A customer is using a Hitachi Enterprise storage system with clustered servers in an active/passive relationship.
What must be done in Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) to ensure that the status of inactive paths on both passive and active nodes is monitored regularly?
A. Switch on Auto failback.
B. Setup intermittent Error Monitoring.
C. Switch on Path Health Check.
D. Set the reservation level to 2.
Answer: C

2. Which ShadowImage operation is permitted when using Storage Navigator?
A. Manage pairs and manage consistency groups
B. Manage pairs but not manage consistency groups
C. Manage pairs only within consistency groups
D. Manage pairs in journal groups
Answer: B

3. After completing a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V installation or before upgrading the microcode, which tool must you use to ensure that the SVP can communicate with all components of the system?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. a network sniffer
D. diags LAN TEST
Answer: D

4. You are connecting a Hitachi AMS2000 Family (AMS) system as external storage behind a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V. You are using one path to each controller on the AMS2000 system.
Which statement describes how to complete the configuration?
A. Enable intermittent error monitoring for both paths.
B. Set path mode to "Multi".
C. No special setting is needed.
D. Set the primary path to point to the AMS default controller.
Answer: C

5. To which two LANs must the SVP of a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V be attached? (Choose two.)
A. customer’s intranet
B. USP V internal LAN
C. HiTrack dedicated user port
D. secure management LAN
Answer: BD

6. Which two topology settings should be used when connecting a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform V to a SAN switch? (Choose two.)
A. Public Loop
B. Private Loop
C. Point-to-Point
D. Fabric
Answer: CD

7. You install a temporary license for a specific feature.
How long is the feature available on a Hitachi Enterprise storage system?
A. 45 days
B. 90 days
C. 120 days
D. 180 days
Answer: C

8. A TrueCopy project has the following requirements: Copy from site_A (Host_A) to site_B (Host_B).
You have defined two instances (horcm0.conf and horcm1.conf) for the application and one Command Device (CMD_A on site_A and CMD_B on site_B.)
What are two valid combinations of distributing the instances and defining access to the Command Devices on the different sites? (Choose two.)
A. Host_A has access to CMD_A and CMD_B and runs horcm0.conf and horcm1.conf.
B. Host_A has access to CMD_A and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_A and runs horcm1.conf.
C. Host_A has access to CMD_A and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_B and runs horcm1.conf.
D. Host_A has access to CMD_B and runs horcm0.conf. Host_B has access to CMD_B and runs horcm1.conf.
Answer: AC

9. You have created a Storage Device List and some User Accounts within Storage Navigator. The SVP has since failed and must be replaced.
How can you create a backup of this information so it can be easily restored after the failed SVP is replaced?
A. Restore the ghost image available on the SVP.
B. Use HiSat to keep track of the information in a CSV format.
C. Ask the customer engineer to copy the source files from the SVP.
D. Use the download configuration function of the Storage Navigator control panel.
Answer: D

10. Which three statements describe the Service Processor (SVP) of the Hitachi Universal Storage Platform VM? (Choose three.)
A. The SVP does have a display and keyboard.
B. The SVP has access to user data stored on the system.
C. Connecting the SVP with a service center enables remote maintenance of the system.
D. The SVP collects performance data for all key components of the system.
E. The SVP enables the service representative to configure, maintain and upgrade the system.
Answer: CDE

11. What is the purpose of the System Assurance Document?
A. to ensure accurate and complete record of pre-installation data
B. to guarantee that HDS equipment is insured during transportation
C. to inform a channel partner that equipment is available for shipment
D. to validate configuration changes for customers with a premium service contract
Answer: A

12. You need to enable Copy-on-Write SnapShot software on a Hitachi Universal Storage Platform VM.
Which two are required? (Choose two.)
A. remote replication license
B. ShadowImage license
C. additional cache memory
D. additional shared memory
Answer: BD

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Exam : Hitachi HH0-005
Title : TagmaStore AMS and WMS-Installation and Configration

1.
Answer: B

2. Which three restrictions related to the controller front-end architecture apply to the WMS100 and AMS200 series? (Choose three.)
A.The transfer rate for both mini-hub connectors must be set to the same speed.
B.Both connectors on the same mini-hub must be connected to the same Fabric.
C.The microcode disables the second mini-hub connector in case of Fabric connection.
D.Both connectors on the same mini-hub must be connected through a Fabric to different hosts.
E.The LUN management functions must be used to share the original port by 2 hosts through the same mini-hub.
Answer: ACE

3. Which two statements relating to the concept of LUN ownership and its implication on configuration best practices in HDLM and non-HDLM environments are correct? (Choose two.)
A.HDLM can only fail-over to the other controller.
B.HDLM can automatically fail-back to the original path.
C.When one LUN switches ownership, all other LUNs on the same controller follow.
D.When a LUN is no longer accessed via the owning controller, but via the non-owning controller, it will change ownership after sixty seconds.
Answer: BD

4.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01.
You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group.
What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
Answer: B
2. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
Answer: BD
3. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
Answer: C
4. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
Answer: D
5. A customer using an AMS500 with mixed FC and SATA drives wants to take advantage of the HDD Roaming feature. You have started to define a RAID Group R5(4+1) with a FC disk in unit 0 position 0.
Which three valid options can you now consider? (Choose three.)
A.Spread the R5(4+1) group over several RKAJs.
B.Extend the defined R5(4+1) group into a (5+1) group on the fly.
C.Assign four FC disks and one SATA disk to the R5(4+1) group.
D.Choose any other position in the subsystem for defining a FC spare disk.
E.Add any other FC disk of any size and speed to the RAID Group starting at 0,0.
Answer: ADE
6. Which three restrictions related to the controller front-end architecture apply to the WMS100 and AMS200 series? (Choose three.)
A.The transfer rate for both mini-hub connectors must be set to the same speed.
B.Both connectors on the same mini-hub must be connected to the same Fabric.
C.The microcode disables the second mini-hub connector in case of Fabric connection.
D.Both connectors on the same mini-hub must be connected through a Fabric to different hosts.
E.The LUN management functions must be used to share the original port by 2 hosts through the same mini-hub.
Answer: AC

5. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
Answer: D

6.
Unit 01: RKAJAT with five 250GB SATA HDDs in position 00 to 04 and four 400GB SATA HDDs in position 05 to 08.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01.
You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group.
What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
Answer: B
2. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
Answer: BD
3. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
Answer: C
4. Which statement regarding Cache Partition Manager is correct?
A.It allows upgrading the controller Cache online.
B.It allows switching on/off Read after Write for SATA drives.
C.It is used to set boundaries between Read and Write Cache.
D.It allows separating slow LUNs from fast LUNs in the Cache.
Answer: D
5. A customer using an AMS500 with mixed FC and SATA drives wants to take advantage of the HDD Roaming feature. You have started to define a RAID Group R5(4+1) with a FC disk in unit 0 position 0.
Which three valid options can you now consider? (Choose three.)
A.Spread the R5(4+1) group over several RKAJs.
B.Extend the defined R5(4+1) group into a (5+1) group on the fly.
C.Assign four FC disks and one SATA disk to the R5(4+1) group.
D.Choose any other position in the subsystem for defining a FC spare disk.
E.Add any other FC disk of any size and speed to the RAID Group starting at 0,0.
Answer: ADE

7. A customer has an AMS500 consisting of:
Unit 00: RKM with six 300GB FC HDDs in position 00 to 05.
Unit 01: RKAJAT with five 250GB SATA HDDs in position 00 to 04 and four 400GB SATA HDDs in position 05 to 08.
Unit 02: same as Unit 01.
You now want to create a R5(7+1) SATA RAID Group.
What happens if you choose the Automatic selection button in the RAID Group creation dialog and your parity group value is 1?
A.You cannot define a SATA RAID Group before the definition of a spare disk.
B.The RAID Group will be created using Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 04 and Unit 02 HDDs 00 to 02.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
Answer: B

8. Which two statements relating to AMS/WMS microcode upgrade are correct? (Choose two.)
A.The AMS/WMS microcode is by default located on the System Area of the first five hard disk drives.
B.The AMS/WMS hard disk drive Roaming feature allows for the microcode to be stored onto the User Area of any hard disk.
C.It is possible to perform an online microcode upgrade using the Web Tool when the Host application runs HDLM multi-path support.
D.It is possible to perform an online microcode upgrade using Storage Navigator Modular when the Host application runs HDLM multi-path support via both controllers.
Answer: AD

9. Which combination of features and parameters can be configured with the AMS/WMS Cache Partition Manager?
A.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Read-data mirroring on/off
B.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition stripe size, HDD segment size, Write-data mirroring on/off
C.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Write-data mirroring on/off
D.Partitioning of the Cache, Cache partition segment size, HDD stripe size, Cache destage algorithm
Answer: C

10.
C.The dialog will end with an error because (7+1) is not an appropriate size for a SATA RAID Group.
D.The Automatic creation dialog will choose SATA HDDs in sequential order, which is Unit 01 HDDs 00 to 07.
Answer: B
2. An AMS200 has the optional FC host interface feature installed.
Which two statements correctly describe the FC port configuration supported by this storage subsystem? (Choose two.)
A.Maximum one FC interface port per controller
B.Maximum two FC interface ports per controller
C.Maximum three FC interface ports per controller
D.Maximum four FC interface ports per system
Answer: BD