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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-103
Title : Enterasys Security Systems Engineer-NAC

1. What is the minimum number of Assessment Servers required to implement end-system assessment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

2. Which of the following are required fields to import a User override from a file?
A. User Name
B. Configuration Template
C. Security Domain
D. All of the Above
Answer: D

3. What failed action(s) can be specified for the Lock MAC configuration
A. Reject
B. Use User Override
C. User MAC Override
D. All of the above
Answer: A

4. Which of the following information is required for creating a MAC Override?
A. Switch IP address
B. Configuration Template
C. MAC
D. All of the above
Answer: D

5. What type of end systems will not interact with Enterasys Sentinel?
A. Unmanaged PCs (i.e. PCs not under the administrative control of IT operations)
B. Managed PCs (i.e. PCs under the administrative control of IT operations)
C. IP Phones, IP cameras, printer
D. None of the Above
Answer: D

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-101
Title : Enterasys Security Systems Engineer (ESSE) Recertification

1. Before the host Sensor can be deployed
A. It must be associated with a virtual sensor
B. It must be associated with a host policy
C. Its key must be added to the /usr/dragon/bin directory
D. Its address must be added to /etc/hosts
Answer: B

2. The attack category is for events that
A. Attempt to discover weaknesses
B. Map the structure of the network
C. Have the potential to compromise the integrity of an end system.
D. Deny access to resources
Answer: C

3. Dragonctl is used to?
A. Start, stop and monitor the dragon processes on the remote node
B. Write log files
C. Monitor the Ring Buffer
D. Maintain configuration channel connections
Answer: A

4. Signature OS
A. Applies signature to network traffic originating from the specified OS
B. Is used for writing Host signatures
C. Is optional on Network signatures
D. Is required on all signatures
Answer: B

5. Which of the following Dragon Agents sends notifications when the sensors detect an event that match a rule?
A. Real Time Console
B. MD5 Sum
C. Alarm Tool
D. Database
Answer: C

6. MD5 checksums are
A. Stored in a protected directory on the host
B. Appended to the protected file
C. Passed up the event channel to the MD5 Agent
D. Stored in the /usr/dragon/bin directory on the Enterprise Management Server (EMS)
Answer: C

7. Which of the following Dragon Agents is used for detecting changes to host files?
A. Real Time Console
B. MD5 Sum
C. Alarm Tool
D. Database
Answer: B

8. In an Event Flow Processor (EFP) a consumer can be?
A. A Sensor or an Event Channel
B. An Event channel only
C. An Event channel or an Agent
D. An Agent only
Answer: C

9. In a standalone deployment the system will have?
A. A net-config-client.xml file
B. A net-config-server.xml file
C. A net-config-server.xml and a net-con fig-client.xml file
D. A net-config-server.xml, a net-con fig-client.xml and a net-config-reports.xml file
Answer: C

10. Which of the following best describes the commit operation?
A. It uses the configuration channel to push a configuration to a device
B. It uses the event channel to push a configuration to a device
C. It writes a configuration change to the Enterprise Management Server (EMS) database
D. It writes a configuration change to the management clients database
Answer: C

11. Virtual sensor names?
A. Are included in events they generate
B. Must match the sensor key
C. Must include the device name
D. Require separate keys
Answer: A

12. Virtual Sensors can segregate traffic by?
A. IP Address, VLAN, Port
B. IP Address, VLAN, Port, Protocol
C. IP Address, VLAN, Port, Protocol, Application
D. IP Address, VLAN, Port, Application
Answer: B

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-018
Title : ES Dragon IDS

1. Which component of Dragon is most responsible for enabling hierarchical deployments?
A. Dragon Network Sensor
B. Dragon Security Information Manager
C. Dragon Event Flow Processor
D. Dragon Hierarchy Agent
Answer: C

2. What is the method that Dragon uses to secure the communication between the remote management host and Dragon Policy Manager?
A. SSH
B. SSL
C. IPSec
D. MD5
Answer: B

3. Which of the following is NOT a valid detection method used by Dragon Network Sensor?
A. Signature detection
B. Protocol detection
C. Policy detection
D. Anomaly detection
Answer: C

4. Which of the following does NOT describe Dragon Host Sensors Multi-Detection methods?
A. Monitors output to a hosts system and audit logs
B. Monitors a hosts files via MD5 integrity-checking
C. Monitors a hosts specified network interface promiscuously for anomalous activity
D. Monitors a hosts specific file attributes for changes to owner, group, permissions and file size
E. Monitors a Windows hosts Registry for attributes that should not be accessed and/or modified
Answer: C

5. What might be one benefit of configuring a Dragon Host Sensor Server?
A. To provide IKE-level security for Host Sensors deployed in a corporate DMZ
B. To centrally collect NIDS-event data from Network Sensors
C. To collect HIDS-event data from systems on which it is not possible or practical to deploy a Dragon Host Sensor
Answer: C

6. Which of the following is NOT a function of Dragon Forensics Console?
A. Allows for central configuration of Active Response mechanisms to deter network attacks
B. Centrally analyzes activity as it is occurring or has occurred over time
C. Correlates events together across Network Sensor, Host Sensor, and any other infrastructure system (e.g., firewall, router) for which messages have been received (via Host Sensor log forwarding)
D. Provides the tools for performing a forensics level analysis and reconstructing an attackers session
Answer: A

7. Which best describes a type of attack that aims to prevent the use of a service or host?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Denial of Service
C. IP Spoofing
D. Exploit
Answer: B

8. What is one benefit of Dragon Network Sensors dual network interface capability as deployed on a non-Dragon Appliance system?
A. Secure management and reporting on one interface; Network Sensor invisible on other interface
B. Allows for collection of event data from both interfaces simultaneously
C. Allows for protocol detection from one interface, and anomaly detection from the other interface
D. This functionality is ONLY available on Dragon Appliances
Answer: A

9. Which of the following is NOT a typical function of an Intrusion Detection System?
A. Monitors segment traffic to detect suspicious activity
B. Monitors network traffic and corrects attacks
C. Monitors traffic patterns to report on malicious events
D. Monitors individual hosts (HIDS) or network segments (NIDS)
Answer: B

10. For what purpose can Dragon Workbench be used?
A. Read data from TCPDUMP trace/capture file and write to dragon.db for later analysis
B. Read data from dragon.db file and write to a TCPDUMP trace/capture file for later analysis
C. Read data from RealTime Console and write to a TCPDUMP trace/capture file for later analysis
D. This functionality is ONLY available on Dragon Appliances
Answer: A

11. Which best describes a SYN Flood attack?
A. Attacker redirects unusually large number of SYN/ACK packets
B. Attacker sends relatively large number of altered SYN packets
C. Attacker floods a host with a relatively large number of unaltered SYN packets
D. Attacker floods a host with an unusually large number of legitimate ACK packets
Answer: B

12. What is the primary and default source of event data for Dragon RealTime Console?
A. dragon.log.xxx
B. dragon.db
C. Ring Buffer
D. Dragon Workbench
Answer: C

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-015
Title : ES Wireless

1. In which of the following devices is the PC Radio Card NOT used?
A. Laptops
B. Carrier (adapter) modules
C. Omni-directional antenna
D. Wireless Ethernet Adapter
Answer: C

2. When configuring LAN-to-LAN Endpoint, which of the following do you need?
A. Wired MAC Address of the remote Access Point
B. Wireless MAC Address of the remote Access Point
C. IP Address of the remote Access Point
D. Different channels configured on both Access Points
Answer: B

3. Up to how many buildings may be connected in a Point-to-Multipoint configuration?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

4. How do you avoid radio frequency interference within an area when positioning multiple APs with 802.11b PC Cards installed?
A. Configure different network names on the APs
B. Enable Secure Access
C. Configure overlapping cells at least five channels apart
D. Maintain at least 100 meters distance between APs
Answer: C

5. What are two solutions to a "Hidden Station" problem?
A. Enable the RTS/CTS Protocol
B. Increase the transmission power of the station
C. Increase the Density setting
D. Move the problem station
Answer: AD

6. Which of the following is NOT a source of radio interference?
A. Microwave ovens
B. Overhead power lines
C. Cable TV
D. Theft detection devices
Answer: C

7. What does the RoamAbout employ, by default, to confirm successful frame delivery?
A. The receiving station sends a MAC level acknowledgement
B. Resolution by upper layer protocols (i.e., TCP) at the sending station
C. The sending station sends a source frame to verify delivery
D. There is no method of ensuring successful delivery
Answer: A

8. What is the default password on the R2?
A. public
B. admin
C. password
D. private
Answer: C

9. Why is it important to read Release Notes when installing a wireless PC Card and its drivers?
A. To enable you to decipher LED indications
B. They include a PC Card license key
C. To learn about restrictions and requirements for your OS
D. To learn what channels are supported in your geographic region
Answer: C

10. When should an Upline Dump be enabled for the AP 2000?
A. When configuring the AP for an upgrade to its firmware
B. When troubleshooting a poor SNR
C. When copying configurations from one AP to another
D. When requested by a RoamAbout service representative
Answer: D

11. What media access method does the RoamAbout use?
A. CSMA/CD
B. Beacon exchange
C. Binary Sequential Back off
D. CSMA/CA
Answer: D

12. Which of the following does NOT affect the size of a cell?
A. Network utilization
B. Radio frequency noise
C. Transmit speeds
D. Humidity
Answer: D

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-012
Title : ES Switching Edition 4.0

1. What is the first factor considered in the election of a Designated Bridge by 802.1D compliant bridges using the Spanning Tree Algorithm?
A. the port ID number
B. the path cost to Root
C. the bridge MAC address
D. the bridge priority number
Answer: B

2. 0.1
C. 255.255.255.255
D. 0.0.0.0
Answer: D
4. The Data Link layer of the OSI model defines which sub-layers?
A. LLC
B. MAC
C. CSMA
D. none of the above
E. both A & B
Answer: E
5. Which information does a bridge use to build its SAT?
A. the source’s logical address
B. the source’s physical address
C. the destination’s logical address
D. the destination’s physical address
Answer: B
6. What version of management does the Matrix-E1 support?
A. SNMP-v4
B. IGMP
C. SNMP-v3
D. Level 2
Answer: C

3. The ability to route multicast traffic is a benefit of which of the following?
A. CIDR
B. DVMRP
C. IGMP
D. CDP
Answer: B

4. What is the default VLAN assignment method for Enterasys 802.1Q switches?
A. MAC
B. Port
C. Protocol type
D. DSAP or SSAP values
Answer: B

5. 1.1.1
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 255.255.255.255
D. 0.0.0.0
Answer: D

6. Which IP address will trigger Remote IP Address Discovery?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 172.16.0.1
C. 255.255.255.255
D. 0.0.0.0
Answer: D

7. The Advanced Routing Feature Set of the Matrix N-Series DFE adds support for which of the following
A. VRRP and Policy-Based Routing
B. BGP and ISIS
C. DVMRP and PIM-SM
D. RIP versions 1 and 2
Answer: C

8. The Data Link layer of the OSI model defines which sub-layers?
A. LLC
B. MAC
C. CSMA
D. none of the above
E. both A & B
Answer: E

9. 255.255.255
D. 0.0.0.0
Answer: D
4. The Data Link layer of the OSI model defines which sub-layers?
A. LLC
B. MAC
C. CSMA
D. none of the above
E. both A & B
Answer: E
5. Which information does a bridge use to build its SAT?
A. the source’s logical address
B. the source’s physical address
C. the destination’s logical address
D. the destination’s physical address
Answer: B

10. How many static routes can the Matrix C1 support?
A. 250
B. 500
C. 1,000
D. 2,000
Answer: C

11. Which groups of RMON does the Matrix C2 support?
A. the C2 supports 4 groups of RMON (groups 1,2,3 and 9)
B. the C2 supports 4 groups of RMON (groups 1,2,3 and 4)
C. the C2 supports 5 groups of RMON (groups 1,2,3, 4 and 9)
D. the C2 supports all 9 groups of RMON
Answer: A

12. Which IP Address Class is reserved for Multicast?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
E. Class E
Answer: D

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-102
Title : Enterasys Security Systems Engineer-Defense

1. Which of the following Dragon Agents sends notifications when the sensors detect an event that match a rule?
A. Real Time Console
B. MD5 Sum
C. Alarm Tool
D. Database
Answer: C

2. The license key file for Dragon Security Command Console must be?
A. pulled automatically from the Dragon EMS Server in the /usr/dragon/policymgr/keys directory
B. manually copied to each of the remote Behavioral Flow Sensors before flows are collected
C. must be carefully entered into the license field of the Dragon Administration Console because it is tied to the hostname of the server and may have an extra carriage return at the end of the file
D. None of the above
Answer: D

3. In a signature the service direction refers to
A. Ports
B. Networks
C. VLANS
D. Protocols
Answer: A

4. Dynamic Collection controls
A. The number of packets to analyze
B. The number of times to execute the signature in a flow
C. The number of follow on packets to capture for forensics
D. The number of bytes to search for a match
Answer: C

5. The virtual sensor name?
A. Must match the license name
B. Is included in all events reported by the virtual sensor
C. Must include the node name
D. Applies only to the device view
Answer: B

6. The net-config-client.xml file is associated with?
A. The Enterprise Management Server (EMS)
B. Managed node client
C. Enterprise Management Server (EMS) Management Client
D. Reporting server
Answer: B

7. Traffic direction refers to traffic flows in relation to the
A. Server
B. Protected network
C. Client
D. DMZ
Answer: B

8. Network policies and signatures are associated with the?
A. Managed node
B. Network sensor
C. Virtual sensor
D. Agent
Answer: C

9. Which of the following techniques is not a viable way for a Device Support Module (DSM) to receive event data?
A. OPSEC
B. SSH
C. SYSLOG
D. SNMP V3 Inform
Answer: B

10. When using the Report Wizard within the Dragon Security Command Console all but one of the following formats can be chosen for output?
A. HTML
B. DOC
C. RTF
D. PDF
Answer: B

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-104
Title : Enterasys Certified Internetworking Engineer(ECIE)

1. A new virus has been identified on the Internet causing an infected system to listen to TCP port X for allowing remote connections to the infected device. If a network administrator desires to prevent infected devices from being further exploited within the enterprise network, the network administrator should configure and enforce policy for infected devices to the Active Edge of the network that:
A. Discards traffic destined to TCP port X
B. Discards traffic sourced from TCP port X
C. Prioritizes traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X to a low priority
D. Rate limit traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X
Answer: B

2. A new virus has been identified on the Internet causing an infected system to listen to TCP port X for allowing remote connections to the infected device. If a network administrator desires to prevent an internal user from connecting to an infected device, the network administrator should configure and enforce policy for malicious users to the Active Edge of the network that:
A. Discards traffic destined to TCP port X
B. Discards traffic sourced from TCP port X
C. Prioritizes traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X to a low priority
D. Rate limit traffic destined or sourced to TCP port X
Answer: A

3. The following components are mandatory for dynamic policy deployment on the network:
A. NetSight Policy Manager and policy-capable devices
B. NetSight Policy Manager, policy-capable devices, and authentication services
C. NetSight Policy Manager and any device
D. NetSight Policy Manager only
Answer: B

4. As defined in NetSight Policy Managers demo.pmd file, the Secure Guest Access Service Group:
A. Allows PPTP and HTTP traffic only, and discards all other traffic
B. Allows HTTP, DNS, and DHCP traffic only, and discards all other traffic
C. Allows PPTP, HTTP, DNS, and DHCP traffic, and denies access to all other TCP/UDP ports and unsupported protocols on the network
D. Discards all traffic
Answer: C

5. In a multi-vendor environment, where is the placement of a policy capable device most effective in discarding malicious traffic and protecting the entire network:
A. At the access layer edge
B. At the distribution layer
C. In the DMZ
D. In the core
Answer: A

6. An Acceptable Use Policy for the network should define:
A. Which types of traffic trusted users only are allowed to generate on the network
B. Which types of traffic untrusted users only are allowed to generate on the network
C. Which types of traffic trusted and untrusted users are allowed to generate on the network
D. Which types of traffic guest users only are allowed to generate on the network
Answer: C

7. In a multi-vendor environment where 3 rd party devices are located at the edge of the network and are not policy-capable, installing a policy-capable device in the distribution layer:
A. Protects the network core from internally sourced attacks
B. Protects the server farm from internally sourced attacks
C. Secures other access layer segments connected through the policy-capable distribution layer device
D. All of the above
Answer: D

8. Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, protects the network from Denial of Service attacks on the network?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny DoS Attacks service
C. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
D. Application Provisioning – AUP service
Answer: C

9. Which of the following is not a pre-defined Port Group in NetSight Policy Manager to:
A. All ports
B. Authenticated ports
C. Logical ports
D. CDP ports
Answer: B

10. Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, reduces network congestion by removing legacy protocols from the network such as IPX?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny Spoofing & other Administrative Protocols service
C. Threat Management service
D. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
Answer: A

11. The RADIUS Filter-ID parameter is used to:
A. Authenticate users
B. Authenticate a RADIUS client
C. Pass policy information to a switch to authorize an authenticated user with a level of network access
D. Discard traffic destined for a RADIUS server
Answer: C

12. Which of the following services, as defined by demo.pmd in NetSight Policy Manager, protects the network from a user masquerading as a valid service on the network?
A. Deny Unsupported Protocol Access service
B. Deny Spoofing & other Administrative Protocols service
C. Application Provisioning AUP service
D. Limit Exposure to DoS Attacks service
Answer: B

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-011
Title : ES Router Configuration

1. What is the slot numbering scheme for the XP8000 (formerly the SSR8000)?
A. bottom left slot 0 to top right slot 7
B. bottom left slot 0 to top right slot 8
C. bottom right slot 0 to top left slot 7
D. bottom right slot 0 to top left slot 8
Answer: A

2. What of the following would cause the X-Pedition Router to go into Boot Prom Mode?
A. a loss of power
B. an invalid system image during bootup
C. an invalid startup configuration during bootup
D. Removing the PCMCIA card when the control module is operating
Answer: BD

3. Which two types of VLAN ports are supported on the X-Pedition Router?
A. Access and Full Duplex
B. Control and Hybrid
C. Trunk and Control
D. Access and Trunk
Answer: D

4. What are the two Queuing Management policies on the X-Pedition Router?
A. Strict Priority, Control Policy
B. Control Policy, Precedence Policy
C. Strict Priority, Weighted Fair Queuing
D. Control Policy, Weighted Fair Queuing
Answer: C

5. When an L3 interface is created on the X-Pedition Router and associated with a single port, which type of VLAN is created?
A. Implicit Port based
B. Implicit Subnet based
C. Explicit Bridged-Protocol based
D. No VLAN is created or required
Answer: B

6. Which one of the following statements best describes the L2 operation of the X-Pedition Router?
A. It acts as a Store and Forward switch.
B. It acts as a Simple Cut-Through switch.
C. It acts as an Adaptive Cut-Through switch.
D. It acts as a Store and Cut-Through switch.
Answer: A

7. Which two L3 multicast routing protocols does the X-Pedition Router support?
A. PIM-SM
B. IGRP
C. EIGRP
D. DVMRP
Answer: AD

8. What is the second step to gain access to an X-Pedition Router when the password is unknown?
A. Copy the startup file to a backup
B. Power cycle the router
C. Press CTRL+ALT+DEL
D. Rename the active file to bootup
Answer: A

9. Which two of the following descriptions are characteristics of the X-Pedition Router?
A. Routing is performed by hardware
B. The addition of new interfaces affects routing performance
C. Forwarding and lookups are performed on each individual module
D. Implementing Quality of Service and/or security Access Control Lists decreases performance
Answer: AC

10. During the boot process, what are all the physical ports initially added to?
A. default VLAN
B. configured VLAN
C. protocol-based VLAN
D. Physical ports are not detected during boot process
Answer: A

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-023
Title : ES Advanced Dragon IDS

1. Which of the following best describes the Host Sensor Event Detection Engine (EDE)?
A. Scrutinizes events, either altering the contents of the event or discarding it
B. Generates alerts or guarantees delivery of events to destinations
C. Analyzes events and produces categorized event forensics reports
D. Detects an event and forwards it to the Host Sensor framework for processing
Answer: D

2. Which of the following best describes the function of CVE?
A. A database of known attacks that can be loaded into an IDS or similar system
B. A database of numerically cross-referenced IDS events that can help any IDS to correlate detected attacks
C. A dictionary of standardized names for vulnerabilities and other information security exposures
D. All of the above
Answer: C

3. Which vulnerability scanner and report format is required for use with the Dragon VCT?
A. MySQL; .msq formatted output
B. Nessis; .nfr formatted output
C. Nessus; .nes formatted output
D. Nessus; .nsr formatted output
E. NMAP; .nmp formatted output
Answer: D

4. Which of the following is NOT a recommended means of vulnerability response using Dragon?
A. Use the Dragon NMAP PERL scripts to tune the dragon.net file
B. Deploy Dragon Deceptive Services (Honeypot)
C. Deploy Dragon Vulnerability Correlation Tool
D. Enable SSL and AES on the Network Sensor to DPM communication channel
E. Correlate Dragon forensics reports with vulnerability scanner output, and create new signatures as necessary
Answer: D

5. Which of the following best describe some scalability features of the Dragon Event Flow Processor (EFP)?
A. Consolidates events from multiple Dragon Policy Managers into one stream
B. Aggregated events from an EFP can be forwarded to other EFPs in a hierarchy
C. An EFP cannot simultaneously support Dragon Realtime Console, Forensics Console and Alarmtool
D. EFPs can be secured by a firewall and configured to initiate Sensor connections from inside the firewall
Answer: BD

6. Which of the following must an IDS administrator consider when deploying Dragon in accordance with a corporate security policy?
A. Must understand the purpose and scope of each aspect of the overall security policy
B. Must understand the security goals of each product in the organization (i.e., operating systems, routers, firewalls, NIDS, HIDS, VPN gateways)
C. Must understand the detailed configurations on each router within the security domain
D. Must understand how the security policy impacts the I.T. budget
Answer: AB

7. Which of the following is NOT a function of a network vulnerability scanner?
A. Monitors health of software applications
B. Output is critical in helping an IDS administrator know the state of the network
C. Catalogs vulnerabilities
D. Shuts down vulnerable TCP/UPD ports to prevent intrusion
Answer: D

8. What are three primary common goals of a corporate/network security policy?
A. Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA)
B. Security, Productivity and Adaptability (SPA)
C. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability (CIA)
D. Authentication, Encryption and Compression (AEC)
Answer: C

9. Which of the following CONSUME event data from the Dragon Ring Buffer?
A. Alarmtool agent
B. Replication agent
C. Connection Manager
D. Consumer Agent
Answer: AB

10. What functions can Dragon accomplish as related to a corporate/network security policy?
A. Dragon agents can gather information about network security compromises and automatically produce corporate/network security policy documents
B. Dragon agents can detect and log security policy deviations
C. Dragon agents can assist with security policy enforcement via Active Responses
D. Dragon can evaluate a corporate/network policy to determine if it is complete and effective
Answer: BC

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-020
Title : ES NetSight Atlas

1. The MIB Tools Utility allows you to do all of the following, EXCEPT
A. View object definitions
B. Set object values
C. Change IP addresses on devices
D. Search for objects
E. Browse the MIB database
Answer: C

2. The relationship among remote devices in each map is automatically generated by Console when you click the Retrieve button.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

3. Which service must be stopped to modify the bootptab file?
A. TFTP
B. SNMP trapd
C. BOOTP
D. All of the above
Answer: C

4. What is the name of the file that defines the absolute path to your NetSight Plug-In applications?
A. PlugIn.details
B. common
C. NetSight.properties
D. Atlas.config
Answer: C

5. How can network masks be displayed in CIDR notation in Router Services Manager?
A. By selecting CIDR in the Network Mask option of Tools > Options
B. By selecting CIDR in the device properties window
C. By selecting Dot Delimited in the Display option of Tools > Options
D. It is not possible to have network masks displayed in CIDR notation
Answer: A

6. Which of the following definition(s) best describes the difference between managers and agents in SNMPv1 and SNMPv3?
A. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different but performed overlapping functions. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
B. In SNMPv3, a distributed interacting collection of SNMP entities can reside on both management workstations and remote devices. Because each entity implements a portion of SNMP capability, an entity can act as an agent, a manager, or a combination of the two.
C. In SNMPv1, the manager and agent were distinctly different and performed discrete functions: the manager ran applications; the agent provided functionality. Managers resided on workstations; agents on remote devices.
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. All of the above
Answer: E

7. Which of the following statements are true about FlexViews?
A. You can use the FlexView editor to define as many FlexViews as you want.
B. You can create custom tabs to display desired MIB information.
C. The FlexView Wizard is not available with Atlas Lite.
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
Answer: D

8. Which Compass search type is used to locate authenticated users in a User Personalized Network?
A. IP Address
B. IP Subnet
C. MAC Address
D. User Name
Answer: D

9. Which of the following device communication methods is used by MIB Tools?
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv3 Credential
C. SNMPv3 Profile
D. Max Access/Super User
E. All of the above
F. A and C only
Answer: E

10. A MIB not supported on all devices should be assigned to which SNMP Request Group, when defining a FlexView?
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
E. All of the above
F. B or C only
Answer: F

11. What are the three predefined groups in Inventory Manager Network Elements?
A. Chassis, Device Type and IP
B. Chassis, Matrix and X-Pedition
C. Matrix, SmartSwitch and X-Pedition
D. Matrix, X-Pedition and IP
Answer: A

12. What are the three tabs in the left panel of Inventory Manager?
A. Devices, Traps, Archives
B. Network Elements, Firmware Management, Configuration Management
C. Details View, Archives, Chassis
D. Properties, VLAN, Compass
Answer: B

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-019
Title : ES Policy Enabled Networking

1. The Active Edge consists of:
A. Policy-enabled switches
B. Core routers
C. SAP servers
D. User resources
Answer: A

2. After configuration changes have been made in NetSight Atlas Policy Manager, what must be done before the changes take effect on the devices?
A. The NMS must be rebooted
B. The changes must be enforced
C. The changes must be verified
D. Nothing the changes take effect immediately
Answer: B

3. Authentication is used in Secure Application Provisioning to:
A. Quarantine malicious traffic
B. Persistently apply policy
C. Allow configuration of a switch’s host data port
D. provide additional network access
Answer: D

4. Certificate services must be installed when using:
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-MD5
C. PWA
D. MAC authentication
Answer: A

5. In the three-level policy model, Enterasys maps:
A. The business/network level to classification rules
B. The service-provisioning level to roles
C. The device level to classification rules
D. All of the above
Answer: C

6. Saving a NetSight Atlas Policy Manager configuration to a .pmd file:
A. Writes the configuration to NVRAM on the switches
B. Allows for multiple configurations to be stored on the NMS
C. Notifies the RADIUS server that new policies have been created
D. Temporarily disables communication between all RADIUS clients until the save is complete
Answer: B

7. In the Enterasys policy-enabled network model, on-demand policy assignment:
A. Is the result of a manual configuration
B. Makes use of the Filter-ID parameter
C. Is overridden by a ports default role
D. Requires the use of 802.1X authentication mechanisms
Answer: B

8. A distinguishing characteristic of PEAP is:
A. It adds security by running over a VPN tunnel
B. It uses salt encryption
C. It requires that only the supplicant present a certificate
D. It creates keying material using the Pseudo-Random Function
Answer: D

9. All of the following are services which make up the pre-configured Acceptable Use Policy service group EXCEPT:
A. Deny Spoofing
B. Permit Legacy Protocols
C. Limit Exposure to DoS attacks
D. Protocol Priority Access Control
Answer: B

10. Persistent policy assignment:
A. Can be effective in an incremental deployment of acceptable use policy
B. Is dependent upon a RADIUS back-end configuration
C. Is deployed based on user authentication
D. Cannot be used on uplink ports
Answer: A

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Exam : Enterasys Networks 2B0-100
Title : Enterasys Systems Engineer (ESE) Recertification

1. What is a Mobility Domain?
A.A logical grouping of Wireless Switches that form a seamless roaming region.
B.A specific group of radios within a single WLAN configured to limit user movement to a specific area.
C.The fringe zone between radio coverage areas where a WLAN user roams from one radio to another.
D.A geographical zone of the WLAN where a set of policy ACLs is enforced.
Answer: A

2. What is the interval that DVMRP routers send Route Report packets to adjacent DVMRP routers?
A.30 seconds.
B.60 seconds.
C.120 seconds.
D.None of the above
Answer: B

3. How can you differentiate between the Gold and Platinum DFE modules?
A.The Platinum part numbers begin with 4 while the Gold begins with 7.
B.The only way to tell is by the color of the tab.
C.The Platinum part numbers begin with 6 and the Gold begins with 4.
D.The Platinum part number begins with 7 and the Gold begins with 4.
Answer: D

4. NetSight Console can both discover and manage 3rd party switches.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

5. The RADIUS Filter-ID parameter is used to:
A.Authenticate users.
B.Authenticate a RADIUS client.
C.Pass policy role information to the Network Access Server (NAS).
D.Discard traffic destined for a RADIUS server.
Answer: C

6. A FlexView table can be exported in which format?
A.Bar graph
B.Pie chart
C.gif
D.HTML
Answer: D

7. In the Planning Tool, what is the procedure to move a DAP?
A.Just click on the DAP, then drag and drop it to a new location.
B.Close the planning tool, release the DAP lock and then reinsert it.
C.Right click on the DAP and select the properties tab, then enter the new coordinates in the topography screen.
D.You can not move the DAP, you must delete it and then re-add it, making sure to specify the DAP location before you hit the "calculate and place DAPs" button.
Answer: A

8. Which router supports OSPF redistribution of the following protocols; BGP, OSPF, OSPF-ASE, IS-IS, and Aggregate.
A.Matrix X
B.Matrix DFE
C.Matrix E1
D.SecureStack C2
Answer: A

9. What is the maximum number of Matrix C2 modules that can be configured in a stack?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer: D

10. Which Routing devices require an advance routing license in order to use OSPF?
A.Matrix N Platinum & SecureStack C2
B.Matrix X & Matrix E1
C.SecureStack C2 & Matrix X
D.Matrix E1 & SecureStack C2
Answer: A

11. What restriction, if any, is placed on aggregating ports on the Matrix E1?
A.Only fixed ports may be aggregated.
B.Ports in a trunk must all be attached to the same internal chip set.
C.Only three ports can be aggregated at a time.
D.There are no restrictions.
Answer: B

12. Firmware upgrade of a stack of SecureStack C2 switches involves downloading the image to the management IP address of a stack, and the image is automatically distributed to all the switches in the stack.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A