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Exam : CIW 1D0-425
Title : CIW E-Commerce Designer

1. Which type of e-commerce would be the best option for a small-business owner?
A. Offline storefront
B. In-house solution
C. Online storefront
D. E-commerce is not yet an appropriate option for small businesses.
Answer: C

2. A new business has adopted an e-commerce model. As its e-commerce implementation begins to evolve and refine, which one of the following would indicate a poor implementation?
A. A greater ability to track and profile customers
B. No reduction in transaction costs
C. A reduction in the amount of manual process
D. A reduction in transaction time
Answer: B

3. In an effort to provide the best customer service, your business has decided to provide synchronous solutions. Which of the following services can be used to provide synchronous online customer service?
A. A current message board
B. A live chat session
C. An online knowledge base
D. Accessible online help
Answer: B

4. Lashonda is a customer service manager who has recently heard much discussion about co-browsing. What is co-browsing?
A. Browsing that allows a customer assistance center to control the customer browser Browsing that allows a customer assistance center to control the customer? browser
B. Browsing that allows a customer to browse with friends and family
C. Browsing that is company-supervised
D. Browsing initiated by a company marketing program, intended to guide users along certain paths on the company site Browsing initiated by a company? marketing program, intended to guide users along certain paths on the company? site
Answer: A

5. Chuy has been assigned to investigate the viability of EDI for her company. As it relates to e-commerce, what does the acronym EDI mean?
A. Electronic Data Interchange
B. Electronic Digital Interchange
C. Electronic Digital Information
D. Electronic Data Information
Answer: A

6. Selena works for a large company that wants to implement a data exchange process with another large company. These two companies are especially focused on standardizing and securing the information that is sent between them. Which solution should Selena implement?
A. A solution using Electronic Format Interchange (EFI)
B. A solution using Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
C. A solution using Secure Electronic Transactions (SET)
D. A solution using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
Answer: B

7. Ole visits an e-commerce site and wants to buy one of its products. Before he places the order, he looks for basic information about how the product works but he finds none. Ole abandons his purchase. Which of the following is the easiest solution that the e-commerce site could have implemented to keep Ole’s business?
A. Provide a better search engine to find the information
B. Design the site navigation to be more user-friendly
C. Provide a frequently asked questions (FAQ) document that lists basic product information
D. Include a diagram of how each product works
Answer: C

8. Which of the following standards provides trading protocol options to control the way in which the trade occurs?
A. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
B. Open Trading Protocol (OTP)
C. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
D. Secure Electronic Transactions (SET)
Answer: B

9. Seamus is choosing an e-commerce solution for his business. He needs the ability to make updates easily while he is traveling, using his own computer to store the information. Which e-commerce Web site solution should he choose?
A. In-house
B. Online
C. Offline/hybrid
D. Inline
Answer: C

10. Which of the following best describes Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)?
A. An Internet standard that protects merchants by verifying identities of customers, and protects customers by shielding their credit card numbers from merchants
B. A protocol that uses encryption in which one key is used to encrypt and decrypt the messages sent over a secure line
C. An Internet standard designed for high-volume, low-dollar transactions
D. The interorganizational exchange of documents in standardized electronic form directly between participating computers
Answer: C

11. Domain Alpha trusts domain Beta. Domain Beta trusts domain Omega. Therefore, it follows that:
A. domain Alpha trusts domain Omega.
B. domain Omega trusts domain Alpha.
C. domain Beta trusts domain Alpha.
D. domain Omega trusts all other domains in the system.
Answer: A

12. Siobhan must choose which type of e-commerce implementation to use for her business. After evaluating the possible solutions, she concludes that she needs the option to administer her site from almost anywhere. Which solution should she choose?
A. An offline storefront
B. An offline instant storefront
C. An online storefront
D. An online in-house storefront
Answer: C

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Exam : CIW 1D0-510
Title : CIW V5 Founfations Exam

1. You have been asked to determine the download time for pages on your site. One page consists of the XHTML document, several image files, and a Flash presentation. These elements equal 84 kilobytes (KB) total. How long will it take for this page to be downloaded by a user with an Internet connection speed of 33.6 kilobits per second (Kbps)?
A. Approximately 5 seconds
B. Approximately 15 seconds
C. Approximately 20 seconds
D. Approximately 55 seconds
Answer: C

2. 6 kilobits per second (Kbps)?
A. Approximately 5 seconds
B. Approximately 15 seconds
C. Approximately 20 seconds
D. Approximately 55 seconds
Answer: C

3. Rolf’s Web site does not meet the W3C’s Web Content Accessibility Guidelines (WCAG). To make his site more accessible according to WCAG, which change could he make?
A. Remove all tables from site pages
B. Add a disclaimer to the home page
C. Create a text-only version of the site
D. Add more images and decrease text
Answer: C

4. Which of the following is the most popular protocol that provides authentication and encryption for secure exchanges over the Internet?
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
C. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
D. Secure Electronic Transactions (SET)
Answer: A

5. What is spyware?
A. Software that reports security holes to hackers
B. Software that gathers information and relays it to outside parties
C. Software that determines and reports improper software licensing
D. Software that opens an undocumented port on your server and allows attackers to control your system
Answer: B

6. In the client/server model, a client can access information from any server if:
A. both the client and server understand the protocol.
B. both the client and the LAN understand the protocol.
C. both the LAN and the WAN understand the protocol.
D. both the server and the LAN understand the protocol.
Answer: A

7. What is an intranet?
A. A searchable internal repository that stores an organization’s proprietary documents
B. A worldwide network available to anyone who has a TCP/IP connection on a computer
C. A TCP/IP-based network accessible only by an organization’s members and employees
D. A TCP/IP-based network accessible only by an organization’s internal employees and select external clients
Answer: C

8. Which type of encryption uses a pair of keys, in which one key is used to encrypt information and the other key is used to decrypt that information?
A. Hash encryption
B. One-way encryption
C. Symmetric encryption
D. Asymmetric encryption
Answer: D

9. Which of the following is required for a wireless network to run in infrastructure mode?
A. A bridge
B. A switch
C. A wireless access point (WAP)
D. Wireless Equivalency Privacy (WEP)
Answer: C

10. Which choice lists the three image file formats that are universally supported by modern Web browsers?
A. BMP, TIFF and GIF
B. PNG, GIF and BMP
C. GIF, JPEG and BMP
D. GIF, JPEG and PNG
Answer: D

11. Which of the following accurately describes a difference between GIF images and JPEG images?
A. GIF images support the transparency technique, whereas JPEG images do not.
B. GIF images support millions of colors, whereas JPEG images support only 256 colors.
C. JPEG images use vector graphics, whereas GIF images use bitmap or raster graphics.
D. JPEG images support interlacing and animation techniques, whereas GIF images do not.
Answer: A

12. Lisa has programmed her company’s router to recognize several internal networks. Which job title best describes her responsibilities?
A. Network engineer
B. Security manager
C. Server administrator
D. Help desk technician
Answer: A

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Exam : CIW 1D0-410
Title : CIW Foundations

1. What is the purpose of the session layer (Layer 5) of the OSI reference model?
A. Establish, manage and terminate connections
B. Forward and route datagrams to their destinations
C. Interface with the end user
D. Provide reliable transparent transport between source and destination hosts
Answer: A

2. Lucinda developed a Web site that uses Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) exclusively to define the pages?layout instructions. Which lavor?of the Lucinda developed a Web site that uses Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) exclusively to define the pages?layout instructions. Which ?lavor?of the HTML 4.0 Recommendation did Lucinda use for her site?
A. Frameset
B. Strict
C. Transitional
D. Loose
Answer: B

3. At which level of the OSI reference model does a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) operate?
A. The physical layer
B. The network layer
C. The application layer
D. The transport layer
Answer: A

4. 0-compliant browser, how is a radio button field displayed within a form?
A. A radio button is displayed as a small box.
B. A radio button is displayed as a small round button.
C. A radio button is displayed as a button with a text label inside it.
D. A radio button is displayed as a blinking series of numbers in a box.
Answer: B
2. At which level of the OSI reference model does a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) operate?
A. The physical layer
B. The network layer
C. The application layer
D. The transport layer
Answer: A

5. According to the HTML 4.0 Recommendation, an HTML tag can consist of several items, all of which are contained within angle brackets (<and >). The main instruction of an HTML tag is usually contained in which item?
A. Element
B. Attribute
C. Value
D. Code
Answer: A

6. What is the key difference between Java and JavaScript?
A. Java is a more complicated scripting language, intended for senior developers.
B. Java is an object-oriented programming language, whereas JavaScript is an object-based scripting language.
C. JavaScript is a more complicated language, intended for senior developers.
D. JavaScript is an object-oriented programming language, whereas Java is an object-based scripting language.
Answer: B

7. Which e-commerce protocol is defined as a standard protocol used on the Internet to secure online credit card payments?
A. Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
B. Secure Electronic Transactions (SET)
C. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
D. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Answer: B

8. Consider the following HTML code: <IMG SRC="FaceImage.gif" USEMAP="#FaceMap"> In this code, what does the hash symbol (#) mean?
A. FaceMap is an image map defined on another page within your Web site.
B. Use the FaceMap image as an image map with default coordinates.
C. FaceMap is an image map defined within the same HTML file.
D. Apply the coordinates defined in a <FaceMap> tag to the FaceImage.gif graphic.
Answer: C

9. Hackers from a certain organization repeatedly attack your Web servers. Your manager wants you to implement a firewall that blocks all connections from that organization. Which type of firewall should you implement to protect your Web servers?
A. Packet-filtering firewall
B. Application gateway
C. Network Address Translation firewall
D. Proxy server firewall
Answer: A

10. In an HTML 4.0-compliant browser, how is a radio button field displayed within a form?
A. A radio button is displayed as a small box.
B. A radio button is displayed as a small round button.
C. A radio button is displayed as a button with a text label inside it.
D. A radio button is displayed as a blinking series of numbers in a box.
Answer: B

11. The Internet’s structure is characterized by:
A. a single host with multiple connections.
B. multiple hosts, each with a single conection to the Web.
C. decentralized control throughout the network.
D. a central hub that reduces the chances of total network failure.
Answer: C

12. Evan added a new image to the company Web site. The image is too large, relative to other items on the page. Which <IMG> tag attributes should Evan use to reduce the image size to 300 by 300 pixels?
A. LENGTH="300" SIZE="300"
B. DIMENSION="300" "300"
C. WIDTH="300" SIZE="300"
D. WIDTH="300" HEIGHT="300"
Answer: D

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Exam : CIW 1D0-520
Title : CIW V5 Site Designer

1. Using Fireworks, how can she adjust the image to fit the users’ monitors?
A. Resample the image to adjust the print size.
B. Resample the image to increase the resolution.
C. Resample the image to decrease the color depth.
D. Resample the image to decrease the pixel dimensions.
Answer: D
3. User feedback can be evaluated in many ways. Which of the following methods is more quantitative than direct user feedback, and will provide indirect feedback from the majority of users who do not respond?
A. User surveys
B. Site server logs
C. Online e-mail links
D. Opt-in bulk mail services
Answer: B
4. Jared is creating an interactive Web site that is expected to respond to heavy traffic. He needs to request new hardware in order to build a staging server. What requirement of the staging server should he be aware of when ordering the new hardware?
A. The staging server should have the same hardware and software configuration as the production server.
B. The staging server should have a different operating system from that of the production server for flexibility during testing.
C. The staging server should have a slower processor and less RAM than the production server because it is just a test server.
D. The staging server should have more RAM and a faster processor than the production server because testing is more intensive than production use.
Answer: A
5. Consider the following code:
<a href="http://www.ciwcertified.com">
<img src="ciw-logo.gif" width="231" height="84" border="0"/>
</a>
The preceding code seems to render properly in multiple Web browsers. However, it will not validate to W3C standards. Which of the following must be added?
A. The alt attribute
B. A linked style sheet
C. A closing </img> tag
D. An embedded style sheet
Answer: A
6. In which of the following formats do graphic files support 24 bits of color information and work well with photographs?
A. GIF
B. SVG
C. BMP
D. JPEG
Answer: D
7. Tom wants to display <li> list elements in a row. What should he add to his style sheet?
A. li {layout:inline}
B. li {display:inline}
C. li {display:block}
D. ul {display:inline}
Answer: B
8. Which of the following would typically be found in the contents of an external style sheet?
A. P [margin: 1in]
B. P (margin: 1in)
C. P { margin: 1in }
D. <P align=left> </P>
Answer: C

2. Which of the following is the common name for the practice hackers use to trick people into revealing sensitive information?
A. Social engineering
B. Identity exploitation
C. Information probing
D. Intellectual deception
Answer: A

3. Jared is creating an interactive Web site that is expected to respond to heavy traffic. He needs to request new hardware in order to build a staging server. What requirement of the staging server should he be aware of when ordering the new hardware?
A. The staging server should have the same hardware and software configuration as the production server.
B. The staging server should have a different operating system from that of the production server for flexibility during testing.
C. The staging server should have a slower processor and less RAM than the production server because it is just a test server.
D. The staging server should have more RAM and a faster processor than the production server because testing is more intensive than production use.
Answer: A

4. Hal has saved a file as a template in Dreamweaver. If he has not already done so, Dreamweaver will prompt him to add:
A. a content region.
B. an editable region.
C. a CSS style sheet.
D. a <div> tag to hold content.
Answer: B

5. Susan is creating some additional images for her customer’s Web site. One image will be used repeatedly on site pages. However, in order to support the site’s topic-specific color scheme, she wants one shape in the image’s background to be a different color on each page. What is the best way for Susan to accomplish this task?
A. Create the image using layers for its different components.
B. Create the image using series for its different components.
C. Create the image using pages for its different components.
D. Create the image using frames for its different components.
Answer: A

6. Jason needs to create a table with four columns and six rows. Which of the following attributes must he include in the <td> tag to allow the first cell to span across the entire width of the table?
A. colspan="4"
B. colspan="6"
C. rowspan="6"
D. width="100%"
Answer: A

7. In which of the following formats do graphic files support 24 bits of color information and work well with photographs?
A. GIF
B. SVG
C. BMP
D. JPEG
Answer: D

8. Alma has been asked to upgrade the pages on her Web site to XHTML 1.0 Transitional. Which of the following tags must she alter on each page?
A. The <head> tag
B. The <span> tag
C. The <meta> tag
D. The <!DOCTYPE> tag
Answer: D

9. Consuela is updating her company’s Web site. She wants to add an image that is 1,414 pixels by 724 pixels. Her site audience generally uses a monitor resolution of 1024×768. Using Fireworks, how can she adjust the image to fit the users’ monitors?
A. Resample the image to adjust the print size.
B. Resample the image to increase the resolution.
C. Resample the image to decrease the color depth.
D. Resample the image to decrease the pixel dimensions.
Answer: D

10. Consider the following code:
<a href="http://www.ciwcertified.com">
<img src="ciw-logo.gif" width="231" height="84" border="0"/>
</a>
The preceding code seems to render properly in multiple Web browsers. However, it will not validate to W3C standards. Which of the following must be added?
A. The alt attribute
B. A linked style sheet
C. A closing </img> tag
D. An embedded style sheet
Answer: A

11. User feedback can be evaluated in many ways. Which of the following methods is more quantitative than direct user feedback, and will provide indirect feedback from the majority of users who do not respond?
A. User surveys
B. Site server logs
C. Online e-mail links
D. Opt-in bulk mail services
Answer: B

12. Tom wants to display <li> list elements in a row. What should he add to his style sheet?
A. li {layout:inline}
B. li {display:inline}
C. li {display:block}
D. ul {display:inline}
Answer: B

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Exam : CIW 1D0-532
Title : CIW v5 E-Commerce Designer

1. Which Web Services specification is most similar to a Java interface?
A. UDDI
B. SOAP
C. WSDL
D. ebXML
Answer: C

2. An application is designed to allow a customer to order concert tickets through a Web Service. If all other factors are identical, which scenario is LEAST likely to be appropriate for this application?
A. Asynchronous Messaging
B. Request/Response
C. Remote Procedure Call
D. Conversational Message Exchange
Answer: A

3. All of the following are faultcode values defined in the SOAP 1.1 specification EXCEPT:
A. VersionMismatch
B. MustUnderstand
C. Client
D. Server
E. Network
Answer: E

4. What is the best scope in which to store an object containing display data that is to be sent from a servlet acting as a controller to a JSP page with the session disabled?
A. page
B. request
C. session
D. application/servletContext
Answer: B

5. A SOAP file cannot include which of the following?
A. DTD
B. Envelope
C. Body
D. Namespace
E. Processing instructions
Answer: AE

6. To develop a JAX-RPC Web Service application, a vendor-supplied development tool is used to create which of the following?
A. WSDL document
B. Skeleton class
C. XML Schema
D. SOAP messages
Answer: AB

7. An XML document that is valid:
A. complies with XML syntax rules and the constraints described in a DTD or Schema.
B. complies with XML syntax rules but not the constraints described in a DTD or Schema.
C. does not necessarily comply with XML syntax rules but only the constraints described in a DTD or Schema.
D. does not necessarily comply with XML syntax rules or the constraints described in a DTD or Schema, but can be parsed with an HTML browser.
Answer: A

8. Valid reasons to use a Schema rather than a DTD when defining an XML document include all of the following EXCEPT which?
A. Schemas are more widely used.
B. Schemas are described with XML syntax.
C. Schemas are used to validate documents on content as well as data types.
D. Schemas are capable of using namespaces.
Answer: A

9. If four classes were instantiated in the following order, implementing the associated event listener, in what order would they be notified if the application were shut down?
CustomConnectionManager implements HttpSessionListener
CustomerManager implements ServletContextListener
OrderManager implements HttpSessionListener
ShoppingCartManager implements HttpSessionListener
A. ShoppingCartManager, OrderManager, CustomerConnectionManager, CustomerManager
B. ShoppingCartManager, CustomerManager, OrderManager, CustomConnectionManager
C. CustomerManager, ShoppingCartManager, OrderManager, CustomConnectionManager
D. CustomerManager, CustomConnectionManager, OrderManager, ShoppingCartManager
Answer: A

10. Which of the following is NOT a major element used to define a service in WSDL?
A. Types
B. Message
C. Port type
D. Service
E. Namespace
Answer: E

11. Which two scenarios will always result in the init method of a servlet being invoked?
A. Every time a new client accesses the servlet
B. When the server automatically reloads the servlet
C. When an HTTP INIT type request is made by a client
D. When the servlet is put into service after loading and instantiation
Answer: BD

12. The APIs used with JAXM applications are defined in which packages?
A. javax.xml.messaging
B. javax.xml.soap
C. javax.xml.rpc
D. javax.xml.registry
Answer: AB

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Exam : CIW 1D0-525
Title : CIW v5 E-Commerce Designer

1. Marty included a banner ad for her online MP3 player store on a music download Web site. She found that 72 percent of users who visited the site via banner ad clickthrough became customers. Which of the following is the term for this percentage?
A. Exposure rate
B. Purchase rate
C. Conversion rate
D. Clickthrough rate
Answer: C

2. The details of an e-commerce site order can be kept in memory, stored on the visitor’s computer or stored on the Web server. This ability to remember the details of an order is known as:
A. profiling an order.
B. tracking an order.
C. persisting an order.
D. filling the shopping cart.
Answer: C

3. Which of the following describes a root certificate authority (CA)?
A. A CA that cannot be brought offline
B. A CA that has an unlimited validity period
C. A CA that uses LDAP to transmit its credentials to other CAs
D. A CA that signs its own certificate and certifies itself as legitimate
Answer: D

4. The main purpose of monitoring e-commerce Web server resources and performance (including bandwidth, uptime, downtime and network usage) is to ensure:
A. site availability.
B. visitor satisfaction.
C. cost-effectiveness.
D. increased profitability.
Answer: A

5. Which of the following is the most effective option for detecting a site attack by someone who wants to modify your customer database?
A. Implementing a firewall
B. Using antivirus software
C. Using an intrusion detection system
D. Limiting the open ports on the system
Answer: C

6. You will be hiring someone to localize your e-commerce site in order to reach a specific audience. Which of the following is most essential for the person you hire to effectively complete the job?
A. The ability to communicate clearly with the team that created the site
B. An understanding of the scripting language and database type used on the site
C. An understanding of the language and culture of the audience you want to reach
D. An understanding of the importance of the just-in-time (JIT) process to the company
Answer: C

7. You are transitioning from a traditional "brick-and-mortar storefront that accepts credit cards to a new e-commerce storefront. Which payment method would be most appropriate during the transition?
A. Cash on delivery (c.o.d.)
B. Open Buying on the Internet (OBI)
C. Credit card with offline processing
D. Advance payment using check or money order
Answer: C

8. What is the name of the electronic funds transfer (EFT) system governed by the United States and designed to provide the clearing of electronic payments between banks?
A. The National Clearing House (NCH) network
B. The Automated Clearing House (ACH) network
C. The Receiving Depository Financial Institution (RDFI)
D. The Originating Depository Financial Institution (ODFI)
Answer: B

9. Which technology provides channel security (privacy and authentication) through encryption, and reliability through a message integrity check (secure hash functions)?
A. SET
B. SSL
C. HTTP
D. S-HTTP
Answer: B

10. You are running a site that provides e-learning services to several Fortune 100 companies. This site is available at the following location: www.appliedlearningservices.com. A new customer wants to access the same server at a new name: www.als1.com. Which type of DNS entry should be created?
A. A
B. MX
C. AAAA
D. CNAME
Answer: D

11. Nain is a front-desk receptionist at a large corporation. After a recent payday for the employees, Nain received a phone call from someone claiming to be an employee who was out-of-state on an assignment. This person asked Nain whether his check had been deposited, and to verify that the check was written to a specific account name and bank routing number. This occurrence may be a type of attack known as a:
A. phishing attack.
B. pharming attack.
C. denial-of-service attack.
D. social-engineering attack.
Answer: D

12. A retail business that advertises and markets using traditional print materials has decided to expand its marketing reach and increase revenue by developing an online catalog. Which of the following is the primary objective?
A. Personalizing the site
B. Creating an effective selling tool
C. Creating a visually attractive catalog
D. Converting the existing print catalog into HTML
Answer: B

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Exam : CIW 1D0-430
Title : CIW Application Developer

1. Which set of operators is used to read and write to a file in random-access mode?
A. < >
B. < >>
C. +< +>
D. -<< ->>
Answer: C

2. Which one of the following choices lists the four steps of interaction with a database?
A. Connect, Read, Write, Disconnect
B. Connect, Send a command, Write, Disconnect
C. Connect, Query, Read/Write, Disconnect
D. Connect, Send a command, Display results, Disconnect
Answer: D

3. Consider the following code:
open(INFILE, "myfile");
Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in scalar context?
A. $file = <INFILE>;
B. $file < <INFILE>;
C. %file = <INFILE>;
D. @file <= <INFILE>;
Answer: A

4. Which choice demonstrates the correct syntax for the DELETE command?
A. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE VALUES state=Kentucky AND color=blue
B. DELETE MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
C. DELETE FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=Kentucky AND color=blue
D. DELETE state=Kentucky AND color=blue FROM MyDatabase
Answer: C

5. Consider the following HTML code:
<INPUT TYPE=text NAME=state VALUE=>
Given this code, which one of the following choices best describes how the data should be written to a file?
A. print OUTPUT, "state" . param("State: ");
B. print OUTPUT "State: " . param("state");
C. print OUTPUT, "State: " . ("state");
D. OUTPUT "state" . param("State: ");
Answer: B

6. The do method duplicates the function of which of the following methods?
A. param and execute
B. post and prepare
C. prepare and execute
D. post and execute
Answer: C

7. Which choice best describes how to access individual elements of an array?
A. Use an index starting with 1
B. Use an index starting with 0
C. Use a pointer
D. Use a key value
Answer: B

8. Which one of the following variables is used if no variable was specified in a pattern match, substitution operator or print statement?
A. $nul
B. $#
C. $_
D. $*
Answer: C

9. Which one of the following statements allows for variable substitution?
A. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
B. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
C. $sql=q{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
D. $sql=qq{SELECT * FROM MyDatabase WHERE state=$state};
Answer: A

10. Consider the following code:
open( INPUT, "Chapter1");
Given this code, which one of the following choices demonstrates reading in list context?
A. %file = <INPUT>;
B. @file = <INPUT>;
C. @%file < <INPUT>;
D. $file = <INPUT>;
Answer: B

11. Which choice best demonstrates how the print statement may be used to print HTML code?
A. print HTML>>;
B. print <HTML>;
C. print ("HTML");
D. print ("<HTML>");
Answer: D

12. Antonio is naming a Perl variable. Which choice includes characters he may use?
A. _, &, *
B. +, #, $
C. $, @, %
D. %, #, @
Answer: C

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Exam : CIW 1D0-437
Title : CIW PERL FUNDAMENTALS

1. Assuming $a = 2, which of the following evaluates as false?
A. "False"
B. $a
C. $a < 0
D. 1
Answer: C

2. Which statement will print the capital attribute of the $kansas object?
A. print ("capital"=>$kansas);
B. print {$kansas}=>(capital);
C. print (capital)<={$kansas};
D. print $kansas->{"capital"};
Answer: D

3. Consider the following program code:
%hash = (small => 8oz,
medium => 16oz,
large => 32oz);
@keys = sort(keys(%hash));
for ($i = 0; $i < 3; $i++) {
print($hash{$keys[$i]}n);
}
What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will fail at line 1 because a hash cannot contain both numeric and string data.
B. The code will execute without error but will output nothing.
C. The code will output the following:
32oz
16oz
8oz
D. The code will output the following:
large
medium
small
Answer: C

4. Consider the following lines of code:
@array1 = ("apples", "oranges", "pears", "plums");
foreach (@array1) {print "$_n"};
What is the result of these lines of code?
A. applesorangespearsplums
B. apples oranges pears plums
C. apples
D. apples
oranges
pears
plums
Answer: D

5. Consider the following program code:
%employees = ("Lucy", "Accounting", "Armando", "Finance",
"Adrienne", "Marketing");
delete($employees{"Lucy"});
Which of the following lines of code has the same effect as the preceding code?
A. %employees = ("Adrienne", "Marketing");
B. %employees = ("Lucy", "Accounting");
C. %employees = ("Lucy", "Accounting", "Armando", "Finance");
D. %employees = ("Armando", "Finance", "Adrienne", "Marketing");
Answer: D

6. Consider the following program code:
$x = 10;
LOOP: while ($x < 15)
{
print ($x );
if ($x >= 14 && $x <= 20)
{
$x += 2;
redo LOOP;
}
else
{
$x++;
}
What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following:
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
B. The code will output the following:
10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20 22
C. The code will output the following:
10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20
D. The code will output the following:
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer: B

7. Running your Perl scripts with a d switch will perform which task?
A. Invoke the Perl debugger
B. Send standard error to a file
C. Disable breakpoints
D. Display a stack trace
Answer: A

8. Consider the following program code:
$val = 5;
if ($val++ == 6)
{
print("True ");
}
else
{
print("False ");
}
if ($val++ == 6)
{
print("True ");
}
else
{
print("False ");
}
What is the output of this code?
A. False False
B. False True
C. True False
D. True True
Answer: B

9. Consider the following statement:
$buffer = a string;
Also consider that a file named test.txt contains the following line of text:
One line of test text.
What is the output of the following lines of code?
$file = "test.txt";
open (OUT, "<$file") || (die "cannot open $file: $!");
read(OUT, $buffer, 15, 4);
print $buffer;
A. a strOne line of test
B. a stOne line of tes
C. a strOne line of tes
D. a stOne line of test
Answer: B

10. .13, Niklas);
for ($i = 1; $i < $#array; $i++)
{
print($array[$i] );
}
What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following:
Masami 10 11 12 13
B. The code will output the following:
10 Masami 10 11 12 13
C. The code will output the following:
10 Masami 11 12 13 Niklas
D. The code will output the following:
Masami 10 11 12 13 Niklas
Answer: A
6. Consider the following program code:
$x = 10;
LOOP: while ($x < 15)
{
print ($x );
if ($x >= 14 && $x <= 20)
{
$x += 2;
redo LOOP;
}
else
{
$x++;
}
What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following:
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
B. The code will output the following:
10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20 22
C. The code will output the following:
10 11 12 13 14 16 18 20
D. The code will output the following:
10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer: B
7. Assuming $a = 2, which of the following evaluates as false?
A. "False"
B. $a
C. $a < 0
D. 1
Answer: C
8. Consider the following program code:
$y = 1;
$x = 2;
$z = 3;
do
{
print ($y );
} while ($y eq 2);
do
{
print ($x );
} until ($x eq 2);
print ($z );
What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following:
1 2 3
B. The code will output the following:
3
C. The code will output the following:
2 3
D. The code will output the following:
3 2 1
Answer: A
9. Running your Perl scripts with a d switch will perform which task?
A. Invoke the Perl debugger
B. Send standard error to a file
C. Disable breakpoints
D. Display a stack trace
Answer: A
10. Which line of code represents the correct syntax to establish a reference to a database handle?
A. $dbh = DBI::connect("dbi:mysql:myPhoneBook");
B. $dbh = DBD:->connect("dbi::mysql::myPhoneBook");
C. $dbh = DBD::connect("mysql:dbi:myPhoneBook");
D. $dbh = DBI->connect("dbi:mysql:myPhoneBook");
Answer: D

11. Consider the following program code:
$y = 1;
$x = 2;
$z = 3;
do
{
print ($y );
} while ($y eq 2);
do
{
print ($x );
} until ($x eq 2);
print ($z );
What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following:
1 2 3
B. The code will output the following:
3
C. The code will output the following:
2 3
D. The code will output the following:
3 2 1
Answer: A

12. Consider the following program code:
@array = (10, Masami, 10..13, Niklas);
for ($i = 1; $i < $#array; $i++)
{
print($array[$i] );
}
What is the result of executing this program code?
A. The code will output the following:
Masami 10 11 12 13
B. The code will output the following:
10 Masami 10 11 12 13
C. The code will output the following:
10 Masami 11 12 13 Niklas
D. The code will output the following:
Masami 10 11 12 13 Niklas
Answer: A

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Exam : CIW 1D0-435
Title : CIW JAVA XCRIPT FUNDAMENTALS

1. What is the primary difference between methods and functions when working with custom JavaScript objects?
A. There is no difference between methods and functions in JavaScript.
B. Methods work with single instances of objects, whereas functions can work on all instances of an object.
C. Functions are declared in the constructor, whereas methods are never declared in the constructor.
D. Methods are single entities, whereas functions can have more than one method.
Answer: B

2. In JavaScript, objects possess which of the following?
A. Attributes and styles
B. Properties and methods
C. Behaviors and styles
D. Attributes and strings
Answer: B

3. The specific color, width or height that belongs to a property of an object is held by what?
A. An object
B. A value
C. A method
D. A string
Answer: B

4. Which special character in JavaScript is interpreted as quotation marks?
A. ^
B. m
C. q
D. "
Answer: D

5. What is the primary method for deleting cookies?
A. Because most cookies have expiration dates, they are deleted with the passage of time.
B. Each user must take the responsibility to delete cookies that are no longer needed.
C. A cookie is deleted only when replaced by another cookie.
D. Cookies can be deleted by clearing the browser cache every 10 days.
Answer: A

6. Which string value contains information about the type of browser being used to access a page under the navigator object (e.g., Mozilla for Netscape Navigator)?
A. platform
B. mimeTypes
C. appCodeName
D. userAgent
Answer: C

7. Which one of the following is a descriptive characteristic of an object, such as color, width or height?
A. Object
B. Property
C. Method
D. String
Answer: B

8. Which one of the following choices best describes how cookies are stored on a user’s hard drive?
A. On UNIX machines, cookies are stored as .bin files in the user’s home directory.
B. Cookies are stored in files that are linked to each site visited.
C. Depending on the browser type, cookies are stored as text strings in directories.
D. Cookies are stored in the directory where the browser executables are stored, and are compressed to save space.
Answer: C

9. In Microsoft Internet Explorer, what is the purpose of the DAT file?
A. The DAT file contains a history of the cookie’s origin and expiration date.
B. The DAT file is used in caching, sometimes in tandem with cookies.txt.
C. The DAT file contains user preferences that, when used in conjunction with certain cookies and Web sites, streamline the ordering process by loading the user profile once.
D. The DAT file is a Digital Archived Text file that provides superior performance to the cookies.txt file.
Answer: B

10. Consider the following HTML:
<I></I>
Which method of the String object is used to write the JavaScript equivalent to this HTML?
A. bold()
B. fixed()
C. italics()
D. sub()
Answer: C

11. Which of the following is another term for an application such as a Web browser?
A. User engine
B. User agent
C. User guide
D. User program
Answer: B

12. You want to embed your JavaScript into an HTML document. Which HTML tag should you use?
A. <COMMENT>
B. <SCRIPT>
C. <META>
D. <OBJECT>
Answer: B

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Exam : CIW 1D0-460
Title : CIW Internetworking Professional

1. Using the IEEE EUI-64 conversion process, how do you convert the 48-bit host address (MAC address) to an IPv6 64-bit address?
A. Add FF : EE between the third and fourth bytes.
B. Add FE : FF between the third and fourth bytes.
C. Add EF : FE between the third and fourth bytes.
D. Add FF : FE between the third and fourth bytes.
Answer: D

2. 10.10.1
B. 172.20.40.71
C. 127.129.11.12
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C
7. Which type of Protocol Data Unit (PDU) does SNMP send when an event occurs?
A. SetRequest
B. GetNextRequest
C. GetRequest
D. Trap
Answer: D

3. Which extension header is identified by value 0 in the Next Header field?
A. Routing extension header
B. Destination Options extension header
C. Hop-by-Hop extension header
D. Fragment extension header
Answer: C

4. 12
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C
7. Which type of Protocol Data Unit (PDU) does SNMP send when an event occurs?
A. SetRequest
B. GetNextRequest
C. GetRequest
D. Trap
Answer: D
8. Which extension header is identified by value 0 in the Next Header field?
A. Routing extension header
B. Destination Options extension header
C. Hop-by-Hop extension header
D. Fragment extension header
Answer: C
9. An SNMP Protocol Data Unit (PDU) type 3 is which type of command?
A. GetResponse
B. GetRequest
C. GetNextRequest
D. SetRequest
Answer: D
10. Which extension header is identified by value 60 in the Next Header field?
A. Fragment extension header
B. Hop-by-Hop extension header
C. Routing extension header
D. Destination Options extension header
Answer: D
11. Which feature of Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) in IPv4 was excluded from Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) in IPv6?
A. Subnet Mask Request/Subnet Mask Reply
B. Group Membership Report/Reduction
C. Router Solicitation/Router Advertisement
D. Neighbor Solicitation/Neighbor Advertisement
Answer: A

5. 129.11.12
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C
7. Which type of Protocol Data Unit (PDU) does SNMP send when an event occurs?
A. SetRequest
B. GetNextRequest
C. GetRequest
D. Trap
Answer: D

6. Multicasting in IPv6 uses three management messages that are similar to IPv4 equivalents. What does the Group Membership Query message in IPv6 do?
A. It is sent to routers to terminate membership in a group.
B. It is sent by stations to determine which local routers are members of a particular group.
C. It is sent by stations to indicate membership in a particular group.
D. It is sent by routers to determine which local stations are members of a particular group.
Answer: D

7. Which feature of Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) in IPv4 was excluded from Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) in IPv6?
A. Group Membership Query
B. Information Request/Information Reply
C. Router Solicitation/Router Advertisement
D. Group Membership Report/Reduction
Answer: B

8. An SNMP Protocol Data Unit (PDU) type 0 is which type of command?
A. GetRequest
B. GetResponse
C. SetRequest
D. GetNextRequest
Answer: A

9. Address 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 in IPv6 serves the same function as which address in the IPv4 address scheme?
A. 10.10.10.1
B. 172.20.40.71
C. 127.129.11.12
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C

10. Within the Encrypted Security Payload (ESP) extension header, which of the following ensures that messages end on a 64-bit boundary?
A. Sequence Number
B. Payload Type
C. Padding
D. Security Parameters Index (SPI)
Answer: C

11. 11.12
D. 255.255.255.255
Answer: C
7. Which type of Protocol Data Unit (PDU) does SNMP send when an event occurs?
A. SetRequest
B. GetNextRequest
C. GetRequest
D. Trap
Answer: D

12. Which extension header is identified by value 43 in the Next Header field?
A. Hop-by-Hop extension header
B. Destination Options extension header
C. Fragment extension header
D. Routing extension header
Answer: D

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Exam : CIW 1D0-450
Title : CIW SERVER ADMINISTRATOR

1. Which task is a part of the Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) name registration process?
A. Name renewal and release
B. Static name assignment
C. Static IP assignment
D. Reading any Imhost information
Answer: A

2. Javier has created a DNS address entry for a server. He wants users to be able to find the server by its IP address as well. The server IP address is 197.176.33.21. Which action should Javier perform so that users can find the server by its IP address?
A. No action is required; the DNS address record will allow users to find the IP address as well as the host name.
B. Assign an in-addr.arpa address of 197.176.33.21.in-addr.arpa to the server in a Pointer (PTR) record in DNS.
C. Assign a Canonical Name (CNAME) to the server in DNS.
D. Assign an in-addr.arpa address of 33.176.197.in-addr.arpa to the server’s IP address of 21 in a Pointer (PTR) record in DNS.
Answer: D

3. 0 on a system that has one hard drive (C:)?
A. C:wwwroothtml
B. C:inetpubwwwroot
C. C:iishtml
D. C:inetpubwwwroothtml
Answer: B
2. Which of the following is an example of a backbone service?
A. System monitoring and optimization
B. Routing
C. User management
D. File backup
Answer: B
3. Nadir wants to convert his Windows NT Server and 2000 Server systems from FAT32 to NTFS. All the servers use one drive (C:). Which command will allow Nadir to do this?
A. convert c: -t ntfs
B. convert -fs c: ntfs
C. convert c: -fs ntfs
D. convert c: /fs:ntfs
Answer: D
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of the linuxconf program?
A. It can be used to install device drivers.
B. It is a command-line program that is used only to add and delete users from the system.
C. It can be used to configure a system host name and IP address.
D. It can be used to install new applications and modules.
Answer: C
5. Which of the following scenarios might result from having a security policy that is too strict?
A. Users may place written passwords in their workspaces to remember them.
B. Users may choose ineffective passwords that are easy to guess.
C. Users may have access to resources that are not appropriate for them to see.
D. Users may choose passwords that are too short.
Answer: A

4. Nadir wants to convert his Windows NT Server and 2000 Server systems from FAT32 to NTFS. All the servers use one drive (C:). Which command will allow Nadir to do this?
A. convert c: -t ntfs
B. convert -fs c: ntfs
C. convert c: -fs ntfs
D. convert c: /fs:ntfs
Answer: D

5. Rolf is experimenting with NT/Windows 2000 commands to ensure that he can assign appropriate permissions for his Web server. He executes the List permission on an NTFS directory. Which rights does the List permission grant to the user?
A. Write and Add
B. Read, Write and Add
C. Read and Execute
D. Add and Execute
Answer: C

6. You want to list all interfaces for your Windows NT/2000 system. What command will do this?
A. ipconfig /all
B. ipconfig -a
C. ifconfig /all
D. ifconfig -a
Answer: A

7. What is the default location for the Web server HTML files in Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS) 4.0/5.0 on a system that has one hard drive (C:)?
A. C:wwwroothtml
B. C:inetpubwwwroot
C. C:iishtml
D. C:inetpubwwwroothtml
Answer: B

8. 176.33.21. Which action should Javier perform so that users can find the server by its IP address?
A. No action is required; the DNS address record will allow users to find the IP address as well as the host name.
B. Assign an in-addr.arpa address of 197.176.33.21.in-addr.arpa to the server in a Pointer (PTR) record in DNS.
C. Assign a Canonical Name (CNAME) to the server in DNS.
D. Assign an in-addr.arpa address of 33.176.197.in-addr.arpa to the server’s IP address of 21 in a Pointer (PTR) record in DNS.
Answer: D
7. Javier copies a file named "secret" from a folder named "restricted" to a folder named "open". Both folders reside on the same NTFS partition. What happens to the permissions on the file named "secret"?
A. The file inherits the target directory permissions. .
B. The file loses its permissions and is assigned to the Everyone group.
C. The file retains the permissions it had before it was copied.
D. The file is copied into the new directory and the old file is deleted; all permissions are retained.
Answer: A

9. 0/5.0 on a system that has one hard drive (C:)?
A. C:wwwroothtml
B. C:inetpubwwwroot
C. C:iishtml
D. C:inetpubwwwroothtml
Answer: B
2. Which of the following is an example of a backbone service?
A. System monitoring and optimization
B. Routing
C. User management
D. File backup
Answer: B
3. Nadir wants to convert his Windows NT Server and 2000 Server systems from FAT32 to NTFS. All the servers use one drive (C:). Which command will allow Nadir to do this?
A. convert c: -t ntfs
B. convert -fs c: ntfs
C. convert c: -fs ntfs
D. convert c: /fs:ntfs
Answer: D
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of the linuxconf program?
A. It can be used to install device drivers.
B. It is a command-line program that is used only to add and delete users from the system.
C. It can be used to configure a system host name and IP address.
D. It can be used to install new applications and modules.
Answer: C

10. Which of the following is an example of a backbone service?
A. System monitoring and optimization
B. Routing
C. User management
D. File backup
Answer: B

11. Jeanne is a Linux administrator. She notices that a user is continually abusing the FTP service on the Linux server by downloading extremely large files. Jeanne has added this user name to the hosts.deny file, but the user is still able to use FTP. Why does the user still have access?
A. The user name should also be added to the hosts.allow file.
B. The hosts.deny file does not allow you to exclude the FTP service.
C. The user name should be added to both the hosts.deny and hosts.allow file.
D. The user name is in the hosts.allow file, which is considered before the hosts.deny file.
Answer: D

12. You are setting up DNS, and you want to assign a Pointer (PTR) record to a computer. What does the PTR record accomplish?
A. The PTR record identifies DNS servers for the DNS domain.
B. The PTR record identifies the DNS server with the best source of information for the DNS domain.
C. The PTR record performs reverse DNS lookups.
D. The PTR record creates an alias for a specific host.
Answer: C

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Exam : CIW 1D0-470
Title : CIW SECURITY PROFESSIONAL

1. Your company allows end-user employees to work from home. Aside from antivirus protection and login through a secure VPN, which tool can help your work-at-home employees to protect their systems at home?
A. A tunneling application
B. A personal firewall
C. Tripwire scripts
D. Updated connection services
Answer: B

2. Which type of attack occurs when a hacker obtains passwords and other information from legitimate transactions?
A. Man-in-the-middle attack
B. Denial-of-service attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Illicit server attack
Answer: A

3. In a typical corporate environment, which of the following resources demands the highest level of security on the network?
A. Purchasing
B. Engineering
C. Sales
D. Accounting
Answer: D

4. Your IDS application paged you at 3:00 a.m. and informed you that an attack occurred against your DNS server. You drive to the server site to investigate. You find no evidence of an attack, although the IDS application claims that a remote DNS server waged an attack on port 53 of your intranet DNS server. You check the logs and discover that a zone transfer has occurred. You check your zones and name resolution, and discover that all entries exist, and no unusual entries have been added to the database. What has most likely occurred?
A. A DNS poisoning attack against your internal DNS server
B. A denial-of-service attack against your internal DNS server
C. A false positive generated by the IDS
D. A malfunction of the internal name server
Answer: C

5. Which type of attack uses a database or databases to guess a password in order to gain access to a computer system?
A. Hijacking attack
B. Virus attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: C

6. A hacker has just changed information during a zone transfer. This attack caused false information to be passed on to network hosts as if it were legitimate. Which type of server is the target in such an attack?
A. An e-mail server
B. A DNS server
C. A router
D. An FTP server
Answer: B

7. While assessing the risk to a network, which step are you conducting when you determine whether the network can differentiate itself from other networks?
A. Considering the business concerns
B. Analyzing, categorizing and prioritizing resources
C. Evaluating the existing perimeter and internal security
D. Using the existing management and control architecture
Answer: C

8. What is the final step in assessing the risk of network intrusion from an internal or external source?
A. Using the existing management and control architecture
B. Evaluating the existing perimeter and internal security
C. Analyzing, categorizing and prioritizing resources
D. Considering the business concerns
Answer: A

9. Andreas visited an e-commerce site and bought a new mouse pad with his credit card for $5.00 plus shipping and handling. He never received the mouse pad so he called his credit card company to cancel the transaction. He was not charged for the mouse pad, but he was charged for several other items he did not purchase. He tried to revisit the same e-commerce site but could not find it. Which type of hacking attack occurred?
A. Denial-of-service attack
B. Hijacking attack
C. Illicit server attack
D. Targa attack
Answer: B

10. What host-level information would you want to obtain so you can exploit defaults and patches?
A. Servers
B. Routers and switches
C. Databases
D. Firewall types
Answer: A

11. Which service, tool or command allows a remote or local user to learn the directories or files that are accessible on the network?
A. Traceroute
B. Share scanner
C. Port scanner
D. Ping scanner
Answer: B

12. When assessing the risk to a machine or network, what step should you take first?
A. Analyzing, categorizing and prioritizing resources
B. Evaluating the existing perimeter and internal security
C. Checking for a written security policy
D. Analyzing the use of existing management and control architecture
Answer: C