New updated 132-S-816.1 questions and answers

132-S-816.1 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:95 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-30
Exam Number/Code: 132-S-816.1
Exam Name: Specialist: Modular Messaging with Microsoft Exchange Implement & Support Elective Exam

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New updated VCP-410 questions and answers

VCP-410 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:300 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-30
Exam Number/Code: VCP-410
Exam Name: VMware Certified Professional on VI4

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Exam : VMware VCP-410
Title : VMware Certified Professional on VI4

1. Creating which of the following optional partitions would change the default partition size for /?
A. /tmp
B. /home
C. /var/log
D. /usr
Answer: D

2. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C

3. Which of the following features is not a part of the vSphere Advanced Edition?
A. VMware Storage VMotion
B. VMware VMotion
C. VMware Data Recovery
D. VMware Fault Tolerance
Answer: A

4. Which vSphere Editions include VMware Data Recovery (Choose Two)?
A. vSphere Essentials Plus or higher
B. vSphere Advanced or higher
C. vSphere Standard or higher
D. vSphere Essentials or higher
Answer: AB

5. 0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B
2. Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C
3. An ESX Administrator plans to install additional supported components on the ESX Server that would increase the memory requirements for the Service Console. Which ESX Server partition would also need to be increased during installation as a result?
A. /
B. vmfs3
C. swap
D. /boot
Answer: C
4. Which of the following tasks can be selected from the home page of an ESX Server (Choose Three)?
A. Download VMware vCenter Server
B. Browse Objects Managed by this Host
C. Browse Virtual Machines in this Host’s inventory
D. Browse Datastores in this Host’s inventory
E. Download VMware Web Access Client
Answer: ABD

6. The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?
A. 800MB
B. 1.6GB
C. 544MB
D. 600MB
Answer: D

7. What is the maximum number of cores that can be used with Standard licensing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 12
D. 6
Answer: D

8. When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?
A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFS datastore
B. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFS datastore
C. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN
D. On a local physical disk
Answer: A

9. Once vCenter 4.x has been installed, a License Server is required in which of the following instances?
A. A License Server is always required
B. To support ESXi 4.x Hosts
C. To support ESX 3.5 Hosts
D. A License Server is no longer required
Answer: C

10. Which of the following partitions is specific to ESXi 4.0?
A. usr
B. vmkcore
C. scratch
D. swap
Answer: C

11. An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation?
A. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
B. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LC Fibre Channel HBAs
C. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
D. 4GB RAM
Answer: B

12. Additional licensing is required once the number of cores per CPU reaches which of the following?
A. 16 or more cores
B. 12 or more cores
C. 8 or more cores
D. 6 or more cores
Answer: C

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New updated HP0-S20 questions and answers

HP0-S20 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:60 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-30
Exam Number/Code: HP0-S20
Exam Name: Implementing HP BladeSystem

HP HP0-S20 60Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
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Exam : HP HP0-S20
Title : Implementing HP BladeSystem

1. Which tasks are part of the Evaluate Data step of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology? (Select three.)
A. analyze the mode of failure
B. gather messages from iLO logs
C. apply one change or one solution at a time
D. isolate faults to a hardware or software system
E. determine which components could cause the problem
F. check environmental conditions
Answer: ADE

2. Which options can be enabled in the HP Network Configuration Utility? (Select two.)
A. fault tolerance
B. NIC-assisted load balancing
C. switch-assisted load balancing
D. DHCP server support
Answer: AC

3. Which features does the HP iLO Advanced for BladeSystem license include? (Select two.)
A. global team collaboration
B. server migration pack
C. enhanced networking
D. headless server deployment
E. integration with LDAP services
Answer: AE

4. Which bays must be used when installing three power supplies in a c7000 to support power redundancy mode?
A. Bays 1, 2, 4
B. Bays 1, 2, 5
C. Bays 1, 3, 4
D. Bays 2, 3, 5
Answer: A

5. Which ProLiant G6-series technology increases the speed at which data can be communicated between the processor and the memory DIMMs?
A. AMD Direct Connect Architecture
B. Intel Turbo Burst Technology
C. Intel QuickPath Technology
D. Intel Hyper-Threading Technology
Answer: C

6. What can you do from the Insight Display on a c-Class BladeSystem enclosure?
A. Access the Health Summary of the enclosure.
B. Change IP addresses of iLO 2 on individual blades.
C. Power individual blades on or off.
D. Power the enclosure on or off.
Answer: A

7. Which statements are true about the AMD Opteron server memory architecture? (Select two.)
A. AMD Opteron uses HyperTransport for Direct Memory Access (DMA) transfers.
B. Each processor has its own memory.
C. A shared memory bus interconnects the CPUs with memory.
D. AMD Opteron uses 8-way interleaved memory in conjunction with proMem technology.
Answer: AB

8. Which features are included with the HP Modular Cooling System G2? (Select two.)
A. non-uniform airflow
B. fixed temperature set point
C. hot-swappable components
D. water leak detector
Answer: CD

9. Which benefits are server blades designed to provide? (Select two.)
A. ultra-density
B. highest internal expansion capability
C. power-efficiency
D. highest drive density
Answer: AC

10. Which server blades are optimized for HPC (High Performance Computing) solutions? (Select two.)
A. BL2X0c
B. BL46Xc
C. BL49Xc
D. BL68Xc
E. BL8XXc
F. BL2×220c
Answer: AF

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New updated 350-001GB2312-LAB questions and answers

350-001GB2312-LAB braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:0 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-30
Exam Number/Code: 350-001GB2312-LAB
Exam Name: CCIE-Routing and Switching Written exam (3.1)

Cisco 350-001GB2312-LAB 0Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for 350-001GB2312-LAB(CCIE-Routing and Switching Written exam (3.1)) examination of original title complete coverage.350-001GB2312-LAB Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

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New updated 642-741 questions and answers

642-741 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:62 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-30
Exam Number/Code: 642-741
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks

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Exam : Cisco 642-741
Title : Implementing Cisco Unified Wireless Voice Networks

1. Which two messages can carry the TSPEC from client to the AP? (Choose two.)
A. probe request
B. association request
C. authentication request
D. reassociation request
Answer: BD

2. On the Cisco Aironet Access Points connected to a Cisco Unified Wireless LAN controller, which TCLAS queue transmits RTP packets with correct 802.11e QoS markings?
A. UP
B. VO
C. VI
D. BK
E. BE
Answer: B

3. Which protocol is used by multicast to prevent loops?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. RPF
D. BGP
E. EIGRP
Answer: C

4. Which two statements are correct if IGMP snooping is enabled on a Cisco WLC? (Choose two.)
A. The router IGMP table is updated with the IP address of the wireless clients as the last reporter.
B. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are forwarded to the router without modifications.
C. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are received at the Cisco WLC, which in turn generates a query for the client.
D. The IGMP packets from the wireless clients are received at the WLC and are used to update the router via Cisco Group Management Protocol update from the Cisco WLC.
E. The router IGMP table is updated with the IP address of the Cisco WLC as the last reporter.
Answer: CE

5. What must be true about the client before upstream traffic stream metrics can be displayed on the Cisco WLC?
A. must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 2
B. must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 3
C. must be Cisco Compatible Extensions version 4
D. must be associated to a Platinum QoS WLAN
E. must be associated to an access point on a Cisco WLC with code version 5.0 or newer
Answer: C

6. Which statement describes the WLCv5.2 delivery of a multicast packet from a wired PC source on VLAN_X to a respective wireless client using SSID_X, using a WLAN controller enabled for multicast?
A. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs, and finally to all wireless clients of that Cisco WLC, via wireless multicast.
B. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via unicast to all of its associated APs, and finally to all wireless clients of that Cisco WLC, via wireless unicast.
C. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs, discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X joined wireless clients via wireless multicast.
D. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via unicast to all of its associated APs, discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X joined wireless clients via wireless multicast.
E. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via multicast to all of its associated APs, discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X joined wireless clients via wireless unicast.
F. A packet is delivered to Cisco WLC and forwarded via unicast to all of its associated APs, discarded at APs without SSID_X joined wireless clients, and forwarded at APs with SSID_X joined wireless clients via wireless unicast.
Answer: C

7. Which two statements are correct regarding multicast implementation using a WLAN controller (v5.2) and AP? (Choose two.)
A. Multicast traffic is sent out on Cisco APs at the highest mandatory data rate.
B. Multicast traffic is sent out on Cisco APs at the highest supported data rate.
C. On Cisco APs, multicast traffic and beacons are sent out at the same data rates to maintain a common cell size for normal data as well as multicast data.
D. If there is more than one mandatory data rate, multicast traffic will be sent at the highest mandatory rate and beacons will be sent at the lowest mandatory rate.
E. On Cisco APs, multicast traffic will be sent out at the highest data rate that a client can maintain with the AP.
Answer: AD

8. What frame type is used to signal TSPEC reservation from a client?
A. RSVP
B. ADDTS
C. 802.11 association information elements
D. WMM capabilities exchange
Answer: B

9. What two benefits result from Cisco WLC configuration of DCA for 5-GHz VoWLAN deployments? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid channels with microwave oven noise.
B. Manually remove channels not supported by the VoWLAN clients.
C. Avoid 802.11n 40-MHz wide channels.
D. Automatically avoid nearby radar.
Answer: BD

10. Which statement is correct for both the LWAPP and CAPWAP AP upstream 802.1Q tagged wired QoS priority for a non-WMM-associated client frame that is H-REAP locally switched running v5.2?
A. Wireless client WMM UP classification is translated to a wired DSCP priority.
B. Wireless client 802.11p classification is translated to a wired DSCP priority.
C. Wireless client WMM UP classification is translated to a wired 802.1p CoS priority.
D. Wireless client 802.11p classification is translated to a wired 802.1p CoS priority.
E. WLAN configured QoS level is used to set the wired DSCP priority.
F. Wired 802.1p CoS priority is not set.
Answer: F

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New updated FM0-301 questions and answers

FM0-301 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:120 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-30
Exam Number/Code: FM0-301
Exam Name: Filemaker7 Developer Essentials Exam

FileMaker FM0-301 120Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
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Exam : FileMaker FM0-301
Title : Filemaker7 Developer Essentials Exam

1. Which three statements about field validation are true in FileMaker Pro 7? (Choose three.)
A. Fields can only be validated by a single criterion.
B. Field validation warnings may be triggered by scripts.
C. Users can be prevented from overriding the validation warning.
D. Users can be presented with a specific message that will see when a field fails validation.
E. A script can be specified to run when manually entered field data fails validation.
Answer: BCD

2. A database has two tables, Planet and Moon. Moons are related to a single planet and their relationship is set to delete related records in the Moon table when a Planet record is deleted. Which two things happen when the Planet table is deleted from the Tables tab of the Define Database dialog? (Choose two.)
A. All data in the Planet table are deleted.
B. All records in the Moon table are deleted.
C. All records in the Moon table remain unaffected.
D. All records in the Moon table are deleted if the option to "Also remove occurrences of these tables in the graph" was selected when deleting the Planet table.
E. All table occurrences of both Planet and Moon tables are removed if the option to "Also remove occurrences of these tables in the graph" was selected when deleting the Planet table.
Answer: AC

3. Consider two FileMaker Pro 7 files, Alpha and Beta, where a table from Beta appears as an externally referenced table occurrence on Alpha’s Relationships Graph. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Layouts in Alpha can display data from Beta.
B. Alpha can contain multiple valid file references to Beta.
C. It is impossible to lock records in both Alpha and Beta simultaneously.
D. Layouts from Beta cannot be displayed in the same window as layouts from Alpha.
E. A table occurrence from Beta is required on Alpha’s Relationships Graph in order to call a script in Beta from Alpha.
Answer: ABD

4. What is the maximum number of characters that can be entered or imported into a text field in FileMaker Pro 7?
A. 64 thousand
B. 1 million
C. 1 billion
D. 1 trillion
E. Number of characters is limited only by disk space.
Answer: C

5. A number field in FileMaker Pro 7 called AmountPaid is set to auto-enter the following formula:.
The Do not replace existing value of field (if any) option is unchecked.
Which statement is true?
A. The calculation will only be evaluated the first time a value is entered into AmountPaid .
B. A user will not be able to manually edit the field once the calculation has been evaluated.
C. If the value in the AmountDue field is changed, the AmountPaid field will be re-evaluated.
D. The calculation will prevent a user from entering an incorrect value into the AmoundPaid field.
Answer: C

6. Which two statements about relationships are true in FileMaker Pro 7? (Choose two.)
A. The > operator only works using numeric match fields.
B. You can build a relationship using multiple match fields.
C. It is possible to create a valid relationship where one match field is unindexed.
D. A table occurrence must be connected to at least one other table occurrence.
E. When enabling the option, "Allow creation of records in this table via this relationship", only =, >=, <= will properly populate match keys.
Answer: BC

7. What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 7?
A. 125
B. 250
C. 350
D. 500
E. The number is limited only by server hardware.
Answer: A

8. Which three statements are true about field indexing in FileMaker Pro 7? (Choose three.)
A. Indexing improves the speed at which finds are performed.
B. Value lists require at least one of any field they reference to be indexed.
C. To establish a relationship between two fields, both fields are required to be indexed.
D. A value index, used in establishing relationships, stores up to 60 primary characters or digits per return-delimited line.
E. Using Unicode or ASCII as the default language by which a field is indexed causes sorts on that field to be case sensitive.
Answer: ABE

9. Click the Exhibit button.
You want to build a FileMaker Pro 7 database that models a business organizational chart. One person may manage no one or many people. One person may be managed by at most one other person.
You want to build the system in such a way that a single layout showing information about a person can display both the name of the current person’s manager (if any) and the names of all people managed by the current person.
What is the minimum number of tables you must define in the Tables tab of the Define Database dialog to construct the layout?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: A

10. Click the Exhibit button
Consider a FileMaker Pro 7 database with two tables called Salesperson and Order, and a relationship between the two tables based on a SalespersonID field. The relationship is configured as shown in the exhibit. There is a layout called Salesperson Detail, based on the Salesperson table occurrence, with a portal showing Order records via the above relationship.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Deleting a Salesperson record also deletes all related Order records.
B. It is possible to create new Order records by importing data into the Salesperson table.
C. It is possible to create new Salesperson records by importing data into the Order table.
D. Users may create new Order records by entering data into the portal on the Salesperson Detail layout
E. It is possible to create a new Salesperson record using a Set Field [ ] script step in a script that runs in the context of the Order table.
F. It is possible to create a new Salesperson record by typing into a related salesperson field displayed on a layout that is based on the Order table.
Answer: DEF

11. If a field in FileMaker Pro 7 has been set to validate Always, which three actions will trigger validation on that field? (Choose three.)
A. importing data into that field
B. exporting data from that field
C. editing data in the field using Instant Web Publishing
D. clicking into the field, then immediately exiting the field
E. attempting to change the value of the field using a Set Field[ ] script step
Answer: ACE

12. Consider a FileMaker Pro 7 database with the following tables and fields:
Using only Cartesian (cross or x ) relationships between occurrences of these tables, sorting if necessary, which two actions can be performed? (Choose two.)
A. determine the mode of the order amount
B. determine the date of the most recent order
C. display all records from the Customer table in a portal
D. create a value list that shows all orders for a chosen customer
E. create a portal to show one record for each product that has ever been ordered
Answer: BC

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New updated 000-001 questions and answers

000-001 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:123 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-25
Exam Number/Code: 000-001
Exam Name: Fund of Applying Maximo Enterprise Asset Mgmt Sol ‘09

IBM 000-001 123Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
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Exam : IBM 000-001
Title : Fund of Applying Maximo Enterprise Asset Mgmt Sol ‘09

1. A competitor in the IBM Maximo Asset Management (IMAM) domain claims that their product contains pre-built workflows and common tasks that span and integrate across asset applications.
What should a solution advisor do when a customer is considering such a solution?
A. Dispute the vendor’s claims that these pre-built workflows even exist.
B. Inform the organization that workflow is an unimportant component in asset .
C. Inform the organization that all vendors have the same pre-built workflows incorporated in their products.
D. Inform the customer that if current business processes do not exactly match these workflows, customization is required.
Answer: D

2. Which two internet browsers are supported with IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1? (Choose two.)
A. Opera
B. Netscape
C. Mozilla Firefox
D. Google Chrome
E. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Answer: CE

3. Which aspect of the client’s environment restricts how an asset management tool can be deployed?
A. which database servers are in use
B. which types of hardware are in use
C. which operating systems are in use
D. which authentication and security protocols are in use
Answer: D

4. Which two aspects of the client’s environment will help determine sizing of the solution? (Choose two.)
A. the number of users
B. the number of locations
C. the number of types of hardware
D. the number of security protocols
E. the number of types of operating systems
Answer: AB

5. What is a rotating item?
A. A rotating item is an individual item that is defined with a common item number. An item is designated as rotating because one wants to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification,and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item record.
B. A rotating item is a set of items that are defined with a specific code. An item is designated as rotating because one does not want to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item record.
C. A rotating item is a set of kits that are defined with a specific description and GL. An item is designated as rotating because one has the single cost to manage prefers to be able to create individual asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the assembly record.
D. A rotating item is an individual item that is defined with a common item number and can be a spare part. An item is designated as rotating because one wants to be able to create multiple asset records by using the information (Classification, Specification, and Item Assembly Structure) contained on the item set records.
Answer: A

6. What are two common reporting requirements? (Choose two.)
A. the database connectivity method
B. the number of users in the solution
C. the number of reports being installed
D. ability to send completed reports by e-mail
E. reporting output available in Microsoft Excel
Answer: DE

7. A customer’s plant maintenance manager invites a solution advisor to discuss Enterprise Asset Management in general and how it might help the maintenance group work more effectively and efficiently.
What should the solution advisor do in the first meeting with the plant maintenance manager?
A. Ask the plant maintenance manager about the company’s history, competition, and market value.
B. Ask the plant maintenance manager about their background, education, and professional experience.
C. Ask the plant maintenance manager about current systems in use, issues with the system,and key areas where the manager wants to see improvements.
D. Ask the plant maintenance manager about the number of employees, union representation, and how IBM Maximo Asset Management can represent employees and their skill sets.
Answer: C

8. What is a feature of the Integration Framework?
A. Allow bulk importing of XML or flat files.
B. Allow bulk importing from Excel spreadsheets.
C. Allow bulk importing from external/legacy system.
D. Allow bulk importing from one database platform to another.
Answer: A

9. What will happen to associated preventive maintenance (PM) records when an asset is decommissioned?
A. There is no automatic method to change the PM(s) status to INACTIVE.
B. The PM(s) will become in INACTIVE if ‘Change the Status of All Associated PM(s) to Inactive?’ is checked while decommissioning the asset.
C. The only way to change the status of the PM(s) to INACTIVE is to remove the assets from the PM(s) and then change the status of the PM(s) to INACTIVE.
D. If the ‘Change the Status of All Associated PM(s) to Inactive?’ is not selected during decommissioning, the PM(s) status will remain ACTIVE; however, work order cannot be generated from the PM having a decommissioned asset.
Answer: B

10. Which application is installed with IBM Enterprise Asset Management for providing reporting capability?
A. Open Database Platform
B. External Report Integration
C. Business Objects/Crystal Reports
D. Business Intelligence Reporting Tool
Answer: D

11. When discussing plant maintenance with plant maintenance managers, frequently the topic of using preventive maintenance (PM) comes up. If this is used extensively and the PM work orders are regularly completed, what is told by this about the operation?
A. It is likely that equipment will break down frequently.
B. It is likely that equipment will break down infrequently.
C. It shows that maintenance is performed on an as needed basis.
D. It shows that there are frequent crises when it comes to maintaining equipment.
Answer: B

12. A company just hired a new plant maintenance manager, and they are concerned about the number of corrupt asset records in the present system. In future they want to prevent this from happening. When implementing the new solution, what is recommended?
A. All maintenance personnel have full access to all records.
B. All maintenance personnel have read-only access to all data.
C. Only a very limited number of personnel have full access to static data records, but all maintenance personnel are able to enter work order data.
D. Maintenance personnel should not be using the system, and should only write entries on printed work orders and hire input clerks to enter these into the system.
Answer: C

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New updated 1Y0-A11 questions and answers

1Y0-A11 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:104 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-23
Exam Number/Code: 1Y0-A11
Exam Name: Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0

Citrix 1Y0-A11 104Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for 1Y0-A11(Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0) examination of original title complete coverage.1Y0-A11 Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

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Exam : Citrix 1Y0-A11
Title : Basic Administration for Citrix NetScaler 9.0

1. Scenario: An administrator must set up a NetScaler system network with USIP mode enabled. The NetScaler must be able to preserve client IP addresses in TCP/IP packets reaching the back-end servers except for connections coming from particular IP addresses that are defined in an ACL. In the case of connections coming from the IP addresses defined in the ACL, the packets reaching the back-end servers should receive the NetScaler IP address instead of the client IP address. On which entity should RNAT be configured to meet the requirements in this scenario according to best practices?
A. ACL
B. Client
C. Virtual server
D. Back-end server
Answer: A

2. Which event would trigger a failover in a high availability pair?
A. The primary appliance reboots.
B. A forced synchronization event fails.
C. A monitored interface fails on the secondary node.
D. The default gateway does not return a heartbeat packet from the primary node.
Answer: A

3. Scenario: An administrator is planning the necessary configurations on a NetScaler system for an environment that requires the NetScaler system to advertise virtual IP addresses, directly connected routes and static routes on the upstream routers.
What must the administrator ensure is configured on the NetScaler system for this environment?
A. Static Routes
B. Link Load Balancing
C. Route Health Injection
D. Front-end Health Check
Answer: C

4. An administrator configured cache redirection and needs to provide a report of how that feature is functioning in the network environment.
What can the administrator use to see a graphical representation of the statistics for the vserver performing the cache redirection?
A. The monitor view for the service bound to the correct vserver
B. The chart option in the Dashboard once the correct vserver is selected
C. The chart option in the Dashboard for the service bound to the correct vserver
D. The request and response rates option in the Dashboard once te correct vserver is selected
Answer: B

5. An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a 7000 NetScaler system when __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 1 Gb/sec
D. the bandwidth requirements inbound to or outbound from the Netscaler are greater than 8 Gb/sec
Answer: C

6. An administrator is configuring a compression policy and does NOT want HTTP responses to be compressed.
Which step should the administrator take to achieve this?
A. Use the appropriate default compression policy
B. Configure the compression policy for HTTP requests only
C. Remove the "Accept-Encoding" header from the HTTP responses
D. Use Re-write to remove "Accept-Encoding" header from the HTTP requests
Answer: D

7. An administrator has just enabled caching and wants to make sure that this will positively impact server performance. Which information can the administrator get from the Dashboard to determine whether server performance was positively affected by enabling caching?
A. Client connection count increases
B. Server side request rate increases
C. Client connection count decreases
D. Server side request rate decreases
Answer: D

8. How can an administrator configure a health check for a server receiving HTTP traffic so that it monitors the responses of the server to actual client requests as opposed to probes whenever possible?
A. Use the default TCP monitor
B. Configure an HTTP-ECV monitor
C. Configure an HTTP-Inline monitor
D. Use the TCP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
E. Configure an HTTP monitor with the transparent parameter selected
Answer: C

9. Where in the configuration utility can an administrator configure a NetScaler high availability pair to ensure that specific interfaces are NOT monitored?
A. The root of the System node
B. The root of the Network node
C. The interface sub node in the System node
D. The interface sub node in the Network node
Answer: D

10. Which SNMP trap must an administrator configure to be informed when the response time for a monitor probe that had exceeded the set threshold returns to normal?
A. entityup
B. entitydown
C. monRespTimeoutAboveThresh
D. monRespTimeoutBelowThresh
Answer: D

11. An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout." Which option could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?
A. SNMP trap
B. SNMP user
C. SNMP group
D. SNMP community
Answer: D

12. Scenario: An administrator needs to create a health check that will mark an HTTP service down if the bound monitor probe fails. The administrator wants to create a monitor and configure the health check so that a trap is sent if the monitor probe reply exceeds 20 milliseconds.
How can the administrator create the monitor for this health check using the command line interface?
A. set mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
B. add lb mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -interval 20 milli
C. set mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
D. add lb mon monitor-HTTP-1 HTTP -resptimeout 20 milli
Answer: D

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New updated EX0-106 questions and answers

EX0-106 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:232 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-23
Exam Number/Code: EX0-106
Exam Name: SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense

EXIN,Inc EX0-106 232Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for EX0-106(SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense) examination of original title complete coverage.EX0-106 Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

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Exam : EXIN EX0-106
Title : SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense

1. 2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
Answer: D
2. You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C
3. In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C
4. You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
5. If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E
6. There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A
7. You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E
8. For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B
9. You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C
10. At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD
11. You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices. During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

2. During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

3. The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
Answer: D

4. There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

5. You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

6. 0.0 /16
Answer: B
5. If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

7. You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

8. 254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
5. If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E
6. There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A
7. You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E
8. For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B
9. You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

9. 0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
Answer: D
2. You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C
3. In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C
4. You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
5. If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E
6. There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A
7. You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E
8. For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B
9. You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C
10. At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

10.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
Answer: D
2. You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

11. 255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

12. In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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New updated EX0-107 questions and answers

EX0-107 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:233 Q&As

Updated: 2009-09-23
Exam Number/Code: EX0-107
Exam Name: SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security

EXIN,Inc EX0-107 233Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for EX0-107(SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security) examination of original title complete coverage.EX0-107 Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

EX0-107 Free Demo Download


Certinside offers free demo for EX0-107 233 Q & As with Expert Explanations). You can check out the interface, question quality and usability of our practice exams before you decide to buy it.


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Exam : Exin EX0-107
Title : SCNP Strategic Infrastructure Security

1. In order for your newly written security policy to have any weight, it must be implemented. Which of the following are the three components of a successful Security Policy Implementation in an organization?
A. Policy Monitoring
B. Policy Design
C. Policy Committee
D. Policy Enforcement
E. Policy Documentation
Answer: ABD

2. During the review of the security logs you notice some unusual traffic. It seems that a user has connected to your Web site ten times in the last week, and each time has visited every single page on the site. You are concerned this may be leading up to some sort of attack. What is this user most likely getting ready to do?
A. Mirror the entire web site.
B. Download entire DNS entries.
C. Scan all ports on a web server.
D. Perform a Distributed Denial of Service attack through the Web server.
E. Allow users to log on to the Internet without an ISP.
Answer: A

3. Attackers have the ability to use programs that are able to reveal local passwords by placing some kind of a pointer/cursor over the asterisks in a program’s password field. The reason that such tools can uncover passwords in some Operating Systems is because:
A. the passwords are simply masked with asterisks
B. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT32 partition
C. the passwords are decrypted on screen
D. the password text is stored in ASCII format
E. the etc/passwd file is on a FAT16 partition
Answer: A

4. During a one week investigation into the security of your network you work on identifying the information that is leaked to the Internet, either directly or indirectly. One thing you decide to evaluate is the information stored in the Whois lookup of your organizational website. Of the following, what pieces of information can be identified via this method?
A. Registrar
B. Mailing Address
C. Contact Name
D. Record Update
E. Network Addresses (Private)
Answer: ABCD

5. Recently, you have seen an increase in intrusion attempts and in network traffic. You decide to use Snort to run a packet capture and analyze the traffic that is present. Looking at the example, what type of traffic did Snort capture in this log file?
A. Windows 2000 Ping Request
B. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Request
C. Linux Ping Request
D. Linux Ping Response
E. Windows NT 4.0 Ping Response
Answer: B

6. To increase the security of your network and systems, it has been decided that EFS will be implemented in the appropriate situations. Two users are working on a common file, and often email this file back and forth between each other. Is this a situation where the use of EFS will create effective security, and why (or why not)?
A. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for encryption.
B. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for encryption the security will increase.
C. No, the security will remain the same since both users will share the same key for decryption.
D. Yes, since the file will be using two keys for decryption the security will increase.
E. No, EFS cannot be used for files that are shared between users.
Answer: E

7. In the process of public key cryptography, which of the following is true?
A. Only the public key is used to encrypt and decrypt
B. Only the private key can encrypt and only the public key can decrypt
C. Only the public key can encrypt and only the private key can decrypt
D. The private key is used to encrypt and decrypt
E. If the public key encrypts, then only the private key can decrypt
Answer: E

8. You are aware of the significance and security risk that Social Engineering plays on your company. Of the following Scenarios, select those that, just as described, represent potentially dangerous Social Engineering:
A. A writer from a local college newspapers calls and speaks to a network administrator. On the call the writer requests an interview about the current trends in technology and offers to invite the administrator to speak at a seminar.
B. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the receptionist. On the call the caller asks the receptionist the normal business hours that the organization is open to the public.
C. An anonymous caller calls and wishes to speak with the purchaser of IT hardware and software. On the call the caller lists several new products that the purchaser may be interested in evaluating. The caller asks for a time to come and visit to demonstrate the new products.
D. An email, sent by the Vice President of Sales and Marketing, is received by the Help Desk asking to reset the password of the VP of Sales and Marketing.
E. An email is received by the Chief Security Officer (CSO) about a possible upgrade coming from the ISP to a different brand of router. The CSO is asked for the current network’s configuration data and the emailer discusses the method, plan, and expected dates for the rollover to the new equipment.
Answer: DE

9. You have just become the senior security professional in your office. After you have taken a complete inventory of the network and resources, you begin to work on planning for a successful security implementation in the network. You are aware of the many tools provided for securing Windows 2003 machines in your network. What is the function of Secedit.exe?
A. This tool is used to set the NTFS security permissions on objects in the domain.
B. This tool is used to create an initial security database for the domain.
C. This tool is used to analyze a large number of computers in a domain-based infrastructure.
D. This tool provides an analysis of the local system NTFS security.
E. This tool provides a single point of management where security options can be applied to a local computer or can be imported to a GPO.
Answer: C

10. What type of cipher is used by an algorithm that encrypts data one bit at a time?
A. 64-bit encryption Cipher
B. Block Cipher
C. Stream Cipher
D. Diffuse Cipher
E. Split Cipher
Answer: C

11. To maintain the security of your network you routinely run several checks of the network and computers. Often you use the built-in tools, such as netstat. If you run the following command: netstat -e
which of the following will be the result?
A. Displays all connections and listening ports
B. Displays Ethernet statistics
C. Displays addresses and port numbers in numerical form
D. Shows connections for the protocol specified
E. Displays per-protocol statistics
Answer: B

12. As per the guidelines in the ISO Security Policy standard, what is the purpose of the section on Physical and Environmental Security?
A. The objectives of this section are to avoid breaches of any criminal or civil law, statutory, regulatory or contractual obligations and of any security requirements, and to ensure compliance of systems with organizational security policies and standards.
B. The objectives of this section are to prevent unauthorized access, damage and interference to business premises and information; to prevent loss, damage or compromise of assets and interruption to business activities; to prevent compromise or theft of information and information processing facilities.
C. The objectives of this section are to provide management direction and support for information security.
D. The objectives of this section are to maintain appropriate protection of corporate assets and to ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection.
E. The objectives of this section are to control access to information, to prevent unauthorized access to information systems, to ensure the protection of networked services, and to prevent unauthorized computer access.
Answer: B

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