New updated 000-025 questions and answers

August 31, 2009 — admin
000-025 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:140 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-29
Exam Number/Code: 000-025
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Implementation

IBM Deployment Professional 000-025 140Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and Deployment Professional product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
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Exam : IBM 000-025
Title : IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Implementation

1. Which client command launches file level VMware Consolidated Backup, eliminates VMware scripts for managing virtual machine snapshots, and automatically performs snapshot management on each virtual machine?
A. dsmc backvm
B. dsmc backup vm
C. dsmc backup vcb
D. dsmc launch backup vm
Answer: B

2. A customer has an Exchange server on a Windows 2003 and would like to perform daily backups. It is required that the Exchange server is always available. What is the best solution to achieve this?
A. Use NTbackup for Exchange Services.
B. Use only offline backups that uses Logical Volume Snapshot Agent.
C. Use IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) for Mail for online backups daily.
D. Use Tivoli Storage Manager client without stopping the Exchange server.
Answer: C

3. What is a limitation in restoring Active Directory (AD) objects?
A. A restored user object is disabled.
B. The AD objects are tombstone objects.
C. The AD database is extracted from a system state restore.
D. Missing attributes are copied from the backup into the reanimated or recreated object.
Answer: A

4. What best describes the default settings for the primary, copy, and active data storage pools processed during creation of the disaster recovery plan by using the prepare command?
A. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
B. Process all primary pools, all copy pools, and no active data pools.
C. Process no primary pools, all copy pools, and all active data pools.
D. Process no primary pools, no copy pools, and no active data pools.
Answer: B

5. A customer requires a large file server backup in the least time possible by using a storage area network (SAN) environment. Which component should be installed on the file server in order to achieve this?
A. Tivoli Management Console
B. Integrated Solution Console
C. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager SAN-Free
D. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager for Storage Area Network
Answer: D

6. Which command is issued on IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server administrative command line to view the actual option settings?
A. query node
B. query state
C. query option
D. query config
Answer: C

7. In a server to server communication (or in enterprise configuration), after defining a target IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) server on the Tivoli Storage Manager source server, how can an administrator test that the details entered are correct?
A. Check the Tivoli Storage Manager server activity log.
B. Ping the server from the operating system command line.
C. Use the Ping Server Tivoli Storage Manager command.
D. Open the Tivoli Storage Manager client on the Tivoli Storage Manager server, and see if the client can access the defined Tivoli Storage Manager server.
Answer: C

8. Which type of device class should be defined in order to use the SnapLock feature in IBM Tivoli Storage Manager server?
A. DLT device class
B. LTO device class
C. FILE device class
D. DISK device class
Answer: C

9. Which client option controls whether IBM Tivoli Storage Manager should create a differential snapshot when performing a snapdiff incremental backup?
A. diffshot
B. snapdiff
C. diffsnapshot
D. Incrsnapshot
Answer: C

10. A new storage pool is to be defined for providing off-site data protection by using an existing tape library at the off-site location and needs to provide optimized restore performance in the case of disaster. How should the storage pool be optimally configured?
A. an active-data copy pool that uses a tape device class
B. a copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
C. a copy pool that uses a tape device class with group collocation
D. an active-data copy pool that uses a file device class with node collocation
Answer: C

11. A customer has a production IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) environment and has run out of scratch tapes in a library named IBM3500. Which command will check the labeled and barcoded tapes into the library in Tivoli Storage Manager?
A. checkin libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk
B. label libvolume IBM3500 search=scratch labelsource=barcode
C. label libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk labelsource=barcode overwrite=yes
D. checkin libvolume IBM3500 search=bulk status=scratch checklabel=barcode
Answer: D

12. In order to obtain an individual file level restore of a SnapMirror backup. what must be done?
A. Restore individual file from image backup.
B. Restore TOC, and then restore individual file.
C. Restore full SnapMirror Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
D. Restore IBM Tivoli Storage Manager Image to disk, and then restore individual file.
Answer: C

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New updated 350-029 questions and answers

August 31, 2009 — admin
350-029 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:159 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-29
Exam Number/Code: 350-029
Exam Name: CCIE SP Written Exam

Cisco CCIE 350-029 159Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and CCIE product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
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Exam : Cisco 350-029
Title : CCIE Service Provider Written Exam

1. With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
B. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Answer: C

2. Which MQC-based output queueing method is designed to support multiple traffic classes including VoIP traffic, mission-critical traffic, bulk traffic, interactive traffic and default class traffic?
A. CBWFQ
B. CB-WRED
C. LLQ
D. Custom Queueing
E. WRR Queueing
Answer: C

3. The show ip ospf database external command displays information about which OSPF LSA type?
A. LSA type 1
B. LSA type 2
C. LSA type 3
D. LSA type 5
E. LSA type 7
F. LSA type 9
Answer: D

4. With the DSCP value of "101110", what does the "11" in bits 1 and 2 indicate?
A. AF Class
B. Drop Probability
C. CS (Class Selector Value)
D. PHB (Per-Hop Behavior)
E. IP Precedence
F. Queue Depth
Answer: B

5. BGP best route selection process is based on what?
A. lowest cost
B. highest bandwidth
C. lowest hop-count
D. path attributes
E. lowest delay
F. lowest delay and highest bandwidth
Answer: D

6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding PIM Sparse Mode operations?
A. It does not support all underlying unicast routing protocols like BGP.
B. It supports shared trees only assuming all hosts want the multicast traffic.
C. Receivers are "registered" with RP by their first-hop router.
D. Receivers are "joined" to the Shared Tree (rooted at the RP) by their local Designated Router (DR).
E. From the RP, traffic flows down a Source Tree to each receiver.
Answer: D

7. Which two statements regarding the IS-IS DIS election process are true? (Choose Two.)
A. A priority of 0 will prevent a router from becoming a DIS.
B. If the DIS becomes unavailable the backup DIS is promoted to DIS.
C. Adding a router with a higher priority than the current DIS will result in the new router becoming DIS.
D. Separate L1 and L2 election processes are held on a broadcast network.
E. L1 routers on a broadcast network only establish adjacencies with the DIS.
F. If there is a tie based on priority, the router whose attached interface has the lowest MAC address becomes the DIS.
Answer: CD

8. Which BGP Community option is used to prevent the advertisement of the BGP prefix to any other BGP peer?
A. additive
B. none
C. no-export
D. no-advertise
E. local-as
Answer: D

9. What bit should be set in the link state PDUs in an IS-IS level-1-2 router to indicate that they are a potential exit point out of the area?
A. ATT (Attached) bit
B. IS-Type bits
C. P (Partition) bit
D. Down bit
E. PN (Pseudonode) bit
F. ABR (Area Border Router) bit
Answer: A

10. Which two are characteristics of an IPv6 multicast address? (Choose two)
A. First (most significant) octet is FF in hex
B. Starts with a prefix of FE80 to FEBF in hex
C. Starts with a prefix of FEC0 to FEFF in hex
D. Second octet contains a 4-bit multicast scope field
E. Last 64 bit contains the modified MAC address of the Ethernet interface
F. Is allocated from the unicast address space
Answer: AD

11. BGP Community can be set in IOS using which configuration?
A. The neighbor {ip-address} prefix-list command within the BGP routing process
B. The neighbor {ip-address} update-source command within the BGP routing process
C. The network command within the BGP routing process
D. The set command within a route-map
E. The send-community command within a route-map
Answer: D

12. What is used to provide read access to QoS configuration and statistics information on Cisco platforms that support Modular QoS CLI (MQC)?
A. Cisco NBAR Discovery
B. Cisco AutoQoS
C. Cisco Class-Based QoS MIB
D. Cisco SDM QoS Wizard
E. CDP
Answer: C

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New updated 1Y0-A02 questions and answers

August 28, 2009 — admin
1Y0-A02 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:41 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-28
Exam Number/Code: 1Y0-A02
Exam Name: Citrix XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1:Administration

Citrix Citrix Other Certification 1Y0-A02 41Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and Citrix Other Certification product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
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Exam : Citrix 1Y0-A02
Title : Citrix XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1:Administration

1. What is the function of full emulation?
A. Simulating the complete hardware
B. Running applications as conventional local software
C. Leveraging of a hypervisor for the underlying technology
D. Offering an API that modifies the guest operating system
Answer: A

2. What does XenServer Enterprise Edition use to convert storage devices into a storage pool?
A. Local disk drive
B. Network disk drive
C. Logical volume manager
D. Physical volume manager
Answer: C

3. Which mechanism for changing the physical network IP configuration is supported on a XenServer 4.1 host?
A. Use the xe command line interface
B. Use the XenServer CD installer system
C. Use of the XenCenter Client network configuration menu
D. Use a text editor to edit the network configuration files in control domain
Answer: A

4. Scenario: An administrator wants to leverage the following XenServer Enterprise Edition features:
1. XenMotion
2. Fast cloning
3. Thin provisioning
4. Shared virtual machine storage
5. Automatic virtual machine placement
Which two storage solutions must the administrator use to allow for all of these features? (Choose two.)
A. NetApp
B. Local disk
C. Fibre-Channel
D. Software iSCSI
E. Hardware iSCSI
F. NFS-based NAS
Answer: AF

5. What is an advantage of application-based virtualization solutions?
A. Higher consolidation ratios
B. Data center high availability
C. Centralized server management
D. The ability to use diverse hardware
Answer: D

6. What is the maximum number of physical CPU cores supported with XenServer Enterprise Edition 4.1?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: B

7. An administrator is configuring a new XenServer implementation and wants to use the Paravirtualized (PV) drivers for Windows virtual machines.
What must the administrator install in order to use the PV drivers?
A. XenServer Tools
B. WHQL Signed Driver
C. Local Host Network Tools
D. RealTek Fast Ethernet driver
Answer: A

8. Scenario: A Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition virtual machine (VM) running on a XenServer host with four physical CPUs is consistently reporting high virtual CPU (vCPU) utilization. Currently, the VM is assigned one vCPU.
According to Citrix best practices, what is the maximum number of vCPUs that can be assigned to the Windows Server 2003 VM?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
Answer: C

9. By default, MAC addresses assigned to Virtual Machines (VM) virtual network interfaces are __________? (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)
A. cloned from the XenServer
B. determined by the host server
C. assigned manually by administrators
D. auto-assigned by the server using random algorithm
Answer: D

10. Which statement about the use of internal and external virtual networks is true?
A. Internal networks are used to connect to a physical NIC, whereas external networks are used to connect to a physical network.
B. Internal networks are used to connect to VLANs on the physical network, whereas external networks are used to connect to a physical network.
C. Internal networks are used to connect to a physical network, whereas external networks are used to connect to Virtual Machines on multiple servers.
D. Internal networks are used to connect to other Virtual Machines on the same server, whereas external networks are used to connect to physical NICs.
Answer: D

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New updated 70-291 questions and answers

August 28, 2009 — admin
70-291 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:146 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-28
Exam Number/Code: 70-291
Exam Name: Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Network Infrastructure

Microsoft MCSE 2003 SecurityMCSE 2003 MessagingMCSE 2003MCSEMCSA 2003MCSAMCDBA 70-291 146Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and MCSE 2003 SecurityMCSE 2003 MessagingMCSE 2003MCSEMCSA 2003MCSAMCDBA product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
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Exam : Microsoft 70-291
Title : Implement,Managing and Maintaining a MS Win 2003 Network Infra

1. You have a Web server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You attempt to start the World Wide Publishing Service and receive the following error message.
You need to identify which services must be started before you can start the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
What should you do?
A. From Event Viewer, view the application log.
B. From Windows Explorer, open the %systemroot%system32driversetcservices file.
C. From the Services snap-in, view the properties of the World Wide Web Publishing Service.
D. From the command prompt, run Net config server /srvcomment:"World Wide Web Publishing Service".
Answer: C

2. Your company has two offices.
The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. You have two domain controllers named DC2 and DC3. All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You verify the IP configuration of Server1 as shown in the following Command Prompt window.
You need to ensure that Server1 can locate a domain controller if a single server fails.
Which IP configuration should you change on Server1?
A. Add 10.10.0.2 as a DNS server.
B. Add 10.10.0.2 as a WINS server.
C. Add 10.11.0.20 as a WINS server.
D. Add a second network adapter that has an IP address of 10.10.0.20.
Answer: A

3. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The network contains a server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The server has an application that runs as a service. The application uses a domain service account to access other servers in the domain.
Security policies require that users reset their passwords every 30 days. After the application runs for a month, the application fails.
You need to ensure that the application starts and can access the remote servers.
What should you do?
A. In the Services snap-in, set the service to log on as the Local System account and start the service.
B. In the Services snap-in, set the service to log on as the Local Administrator account and start the service.
C. In Active Directory Users and Computers, reset the server’s computer account. In the Services snap-in, start the service.
D. In Active Directory Users and Computers, set the Account Expires option to Never. In the Services snap-in, start the service.
Answer: D

4. Your company has two offices.
All servers run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). The relevant portion of the network is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that Server1 can communicate with Web servers on the Internet.
Which default gateway should you assign to Server1?
A. 10.10.10.129
B. 10.10.11.1
C. 131.107.1.1
D. 192.168.1.1
Answer: A

5. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The domain contains 35 Windows Server 2003 computers; 3,000 Windows XP Professional computers; and 2,000 Windows 2000 Professional computers.
Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) is installed on a server named Server1. The necessary Group Policy object (GPO) is configured.
You need to confirm whether all computers in the domain have received all approved updates from Server1.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Install and configure Urlscan.exe.
B. At the command prompt, type gpresult /scope COMPUTER.
C. Open the WSUS console. Run the Status of Computers report.
D. Open the WSUS console. Run the Synchronization Results report.
Answer: C

6. You have an DNS server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You need to ensure that an e-mail message is sent to the administrator if the DNS server service stops.
You create a script that sends e-mail when the script is executed.
What should you do next?
A. Install the POP3 service on the DNS server.
B. Modify the DNS Server service dependencies.
C. Modify the DNS Server service Recovery options.
D. Install the Universal Description, Discovery, and Integration (UDDI) services on the DNS server.
Answer: C

7. You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
On Server1, you install an application that runs as a service named App1. App1 will save files to a file share on Server2.
You perform the following actions:
·Create a domain account named App1Service.
·Set the password for App1Service.
·Create a file share on Server2.
·Grant App1Service the Allow – Change share permission.
You need to ensure that App1 can save files to the share on Server2.
What should you do?
A. From the Services snap-in, configure the Log On settings.
B. From the Services snap-in, configure the Recovery settings.
C. From Local Security Policy, disable the Network access: Shares that can be accessed anonymously setting.
D. From Local Security Policy, disable the Network access: Let Everyone permissions apply to anonymous users setting.
Answer: A

8. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.
You need to implement a new software update infrastructure. You discover that security patches, critical updates, and service packs have never been installed on any client computer on the network.
You install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server5. You synchronize and approve all of the current security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
You need to ensure that all client computers receive all Microsoft security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Open the WSUS console. Select the option to automatically approve WSUS updates.
B. Install the Automatic Updates client on all client computers.
C. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Controller organizational unit (OU) Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http ://server5.
D. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Policy Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http: //server5.
E. Open the WSUS console. Create a target group and assign all client computers to the group.
Answer: BD
3. You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2). Windows Firewall allows the following ports on Server1:
·53
·110
·135
You plan to install a monitoring server on the network.
You need to ensure that the monitoring server can use Server1 to relay e-mail messages.
You install the SMTP service on Server1.
What should you do next?
A. Install SNMP.
B. Install the POP3 service.
C. Create an exception for TCP port 21 in Windows Firewall.
D. Create an exception for TCP port 25 in Windows Firewall.
Answer: D

9. You have a stand-alone server that runs Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You run the Runas command and receive the following error message: "1058: The service cannot be started, either because it is disabled or has no enabled devices associated with it."
You need to ensure that you can use Runas successfully.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Remote Registry service.
B. Enable the Secondary Logon service.
C. Join the server to an Active Directory domain.
D. From Device Manager, scan for hardware changes.
Answer: B

10. Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain. The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2003 Service Pack 2 (SP2).
You log on to Server1 by using the Administrator account for the domain. You open Event Viewer and attempt to connect to Server2 but receive the following error message.
You verify that you can connect to Server2 by using Windows Explorer and that Windows Firewall is disabled on Server2.
You open the Services snap-in on Server2 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to ensure that you can connect to Server2 remotely by using Event Viewer.
What should you do on Server2?
A. Add the Administrator account to the HelpServicesGroup.
B. Set the Startup Type for the Remote Registry service to Automatic and then start the service.
C. Set the Startup Type for the Secondary Logon service to Disabled and then stop the service.
D. Set the Startup Type for the Special Administration Console Helper service to Automatic and then start the service.
Answer: B

11. You are the network administrator for your company. The network consists of a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003. All client computers run Windows XP Professional.
You need to implement a new software update infrastructure. You discover that security patches, critical updates, and service packs have never been installed on any client computer on the network.
You install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on a Windows Server 2003 computer named Server5. You synchronize and approve all of the current security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
You need to ensure that all client computers receive all Microsoft security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Open the WSUS console. Select the option to automatically approve WSUS updates.
B. Install the Automatic Updates client on all client computers.
C. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Controller organizational unit (OU) Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http ://server5.
D. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Policy Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http: //server5.
E. Open the WSUS console. Create a target group and assign all client computers to the group.
Answer: BD

12. You synchronize and approve all of the current security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
You need to ensure that all client computers receive all Microsoft security patches, critical updates, and service packs.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Open the WSUS console. Select the option to automatically approve WSUS updates.
B. Install the Automatic Updates client on all client computers.
C. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Controller organizational unit (OU) Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http ://server5.
D. Modify the Microsoft Update settings of the Default Domain Policy Group Policy object (GPO) to point client computers to http: //server5.
E. Open the WSUS console. Create a target group and assign all client computers to the group.
Answer: B

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New updated 1Z0-043 questions and answers

August 27, 2009 — admin
1Z0-043 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:217 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-27
Exam Number/Code: 1Z0-043
Exam Name: Oracle Database 10g: Administration II

Oracle 10g DBA 1Z0-043 217Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and 10g DBA product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for 10g DBA 1Z0-043(Oracle Database 10g: Administration II) examination of original title complete coverage.1Z0-043 Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-043
Title : Oracle Database 10g: Administration II

1. You need to check the EMP_EAST partition in the EMPLOYEES table for physical corruptions. You also need to verify that the rows belong to the correct partition. Which option could you use?
A. LogMiner
B. the DBNEWID utility
C. the DBVERIFY utility
D. the ANALYZE command
E. the RMAN REPORT command
F. the RMAN CROSSCHECK command
G. the RMAN BLOCKRECOVER command
Answer: D

2. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform a backup of the DETTBS tablespace:
RMAN> BACKUP TABLESPACE DETTBS;
Under which conditions would this command execute successfully? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The database is in NOMOUNT state.
B. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
C. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
D. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
E. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
Answer: BCE

3. You lost a temporary file that belongs to the default temporary tablespace in your database. From the options provided, which approach would you take to solve the problem?
A. flash back the database
B. import the temporary tablespace from the last export
C. restore all the data files and temporary files from the last full database backup and perform a recovery
D. not perform a recovery, but create a new temporary tablespace, make it the default temporary tablespace and then drop the old tablespace
Answer: D

4. These are the details about V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT:
SQL> DESC V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT
name Null? Type
————- ——– ————–
BEGIN_TIME DATE
END_TIME DATE
FLASHBACK_DATA NUMBER
DB_DATA NUMBER
REDO_DATA NUMBER
ESTIMATED_FLASHBACK_SIZE NUMBER
Which two statements regarding the V$FLASHBACK_DATABASE_STAT view are true? (Choose two.)
A. BEGIN_TIME is the time at which Flashback logging is enabled.
B. END_TIME is the time at which the query is executed on the view.
C. REDO_DATA is the number of bytes of redo data written during the interval.
D. This view contains information about flashback data pertaining to the last 24 hours.
E. FLASHBACK_DATA is the amount of flashback data generated since the database was opened.
Answer: CD

5. You execute the following command to enable a session in resumable mode:
SQL> ALTER SESSION ENABLE RESUMABLE TIMEOUT 60;
What is the impact of a timeout on the statements being suspended?
A. The statements remain suspended for at least 60 seconds.
B. The statements are suspended for 60 seconds and then they are executed.
C. The suspended statements error out if the problem is not rectified within 60 seconds.
D. The statements are automatically suspended 60 seconds after an error is received, and then attempt to execute normally again.
Answer: C

6. Immediately after adding a new disk to or removing an existing disk from an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) instance, you find that the performance of the database decreases initially, until the addition or removal process is completed. Performance then gradually returns to normal levels.
Which two activities could you perform to maintain a consistent performance of the database while adding or removing disks? (Choose two.)
A. increase the number of checkpoint processes
B. define the POWER option while adding or removing the disks
C. increase the number of DBWR processes by setting up a higher value for DB_WRITER_PROCESSES
D. increase the number of slave database writer processes by setting up a higher value for DBWR_IO_SLAVES
E. increase the number of ASM Rebalance processes by setting up a higher value for ASM_POWER_LIMIT during the disk addition or removal process
Answer: BE

7. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN):
RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE;
Which operation must you perform before this command is executed?
A. back up the control file to trace
B. bring database to the MOUNT state
C. open a connection to the RMAN recovery catalog, which contains the RMAN metadata for the target database
D. set the database ID (DBID), but only if the DB_NAME parameter associated with the target database is unique in the recovery catalog
Answer: C

8. You enabled Automatic Shared Memory Management. The initialization parameters are set as shown below:
SGA_TARGET = 10GB
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 14GB
STREAMS_POOL_SIZE = 1GB
SHARED_POOL_SIZE = 3GB
Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. A maximum of 3 GB can be allocated to shared pool.
B. The value for SGA_TARGET can be increased up to a maximum of 14 GB.
C. A total of 14 GB memory will be allocated to the automatically tuned memory components.
D. Increasing the value for SGA_TARGET will automatically increase the memory allocated for STREAMS_POOL_SIZE.
E. Increasing the value for SGA_TARGET to 12 GB will automatically increase the memory allocated to autotuned parameters.
F. Reducing the value for SGA_TARGET to 9 GB will automatically decrease the memory allocated to shared pool from 3 GB to 2 GB.
Answer: BE

9. You have set the value of the NLS_TIMESTAMP_TZ_FORMAT parameter in the parameter file to YYYY-MM-DD. The default format of which two data types would be affected by this setting? (Choose two.)
A. DATE
B. TIMESTAMP
C. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. TIMESTAMP WITH LOCAL TIME ZONE
Answer: BE

10. Manually, you set the consumer group of all of the newly created users to MYDB_GRP. You want the users to be able to change their consumer groups as per the application requirement.
What was the first step that was needed in the process to achieve this objective?
A. The user must have been granted the DBA role.
B. The user must have been granted the switch privilege as a part of a role.
C. The user must have been granted the Resource Manager administrator privilege.
D. The user must have been granted the switch privilege by using the DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER_PRIVS package.
Answer: D

11. You are using Oracle Database 10g. You performed an incomplete recovery of your database and opened the database with the RESETLOGS option.
What is the effect of opening the database with the RESETLOGS option? (Choose two.)
A. This operation resets the SCN for the database.
B. This operation creates a new incarnation of the database.
C. This operation moves all the redo log files to a different location.
D. This operation deletes the old redo log files and creates new redo log files.
E. This operation updates all current datafiles and online redo logs and all subsequent archived redo logs with a new RESETLOGS SCN and time stamp.
Answer: BE

12. View the Exhibit.
You have more than one table in the recycle bin having the same original name, DEPT2. You do not have any table with the name DEPT2 in your schema. You executed the following command:
PURGE TABLE dept2;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. All the tables having the same original name as DEPT2 will be purged from the recycle bin.
B. The table with dropscn = 1928151 (oldest dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
C. The table with dropscn = 1937123 (most recent dropscn) will be purged from the recycle bin.
D. None of the tables will be purged because there are multiple entries with the same original name in the recycle bin.
Answer: B

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New updated 70-660 questions and answers

August 27, 2009 — admin
70-660 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:43 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-27
Exam Number/Code: 70-660
Exam Name: TS:Windows® Internals

Microsoft TS 70-660 43Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and TS product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for TS 70-660(TS:Windows® Internals) examination of original title complete coverage.70-660 Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

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Exam : Microsoft 70-660
Title : TS: Windows(r) Internals

1. You are writing an I/O dispatch routine for a Windows device driver. The device driver supports buffered I/O. The dispatch routine transfers 1 KB of data to the user process.
You need to retrieve the kernel address of the 1-KB buffer from the I/O request packet (IRP).
Which field of the IRP contains the kernel address?
A. Irp->AssociatedIrp.SystemBuffer
B. Irp->Overlay.UserApcContext
C. Irp->Tail.Overlay.DriverContext[0]
D. Irp->UserBuffer
Answer: A

2. You develop a device driver for Windows XP that runs on uniprocessor systems only. The driver creates a system thread and a deferred procedure call (DPC). The DPC is invoked by a repeating timer.
The thread and the DPC must process entries from the same work queue.
You need to ensure that the system thread and the DPC are synchronized.
Which IRQ Level (IRQL) should you use?
A. APC_LEVEL
B. DISPATCH_LEVEL
C. LOW_LEVEL
D. PASSIVE_LEVEL
Answer: B

3. You develop a Windows device driver for a hardware device. The hardware device uses a simple direct memory access (DMA) controller. The hardware device does not perform virtual address translation.
You need to allocate a 64-KB buffer in Windows that accepts a DMA transfer of 64 KB from the hardware device.
Which routine should you use?
A. AllocateHeap(655536)
B. ExAllocatePoolWithTag(PagePool, 65536, ‘abcd’)
C. ExAllocatePoolWithTag(NonPagePool, 65536, ‘abcd’)
D. MmAllocateContiguousMemory(65536, 0xFFFFFFFF)
Answer: D

4. You are designing an application.
The application fails because of an access violation. The access violation is caused by a heap corruption.
You need to identify the cause of the heap corruption.
Which tool should you use?
A. Application Verifier
B. Process Viewer
C. Performance Monitor
D. Task Manager
Answer: A

5. You are developing an application.
You need to ensure that the application can read from COM port 10 by using the CreateFile function.
Which device name should you open?
A. "COM10"
B. "%COM10%"
C. "\COM10"
D. "\\.\COM10"
Answer: D

6. You plan to update a device driver on a Windows system. You download a copy of the device driver file from the Internet, but you are uncertain that the device driver is legitimate.
You need to verify the device driver’s digital signature.
Which tool should you use?
A. Certmgr.exe
B. Certmgr.msc
C. Makecert.exe
D. Signtool.exe
Answer: D

7. You develop a device driver for a PCI device. The PCI device runs on Windows Server 2003 computers.
You test the device driver’s interrupt processing. The computer stops responding.
You need to locate the list of interrupt handling routines in the crash dump by using WinDbg.
Which command should you use?
A. !idt
B. !ipi
C. !irql
D. !isr
Answer: A

8. You have a device driver that has one monitoring thread named Thread1. The device driver has three worker threads named Thread2, Thread3, and Thread4. The worker threads run every 10 seconds and complete within 1 second. If any worker thread does not run at least once every 30 seconds, Thread1 calls KeBugCheckEx, and then a complete kernel crash dump is generated.
The computer generates a bug check and a complete kernel dump is generated.
You review the complete kernel dump and notice the following:
You need to identify the root cause of the bug check.
What caused the bug check to occur?
A. the priority of Thread1
B. the priority of Thread4
C. the state of Thread1
D. the state of Thread2 and Thread3
Answer: B

9. You are writing a user application that runs on Windows Server 2003.
The design specification for the application requires user authentication.
You need to ensure that users enter a local user name and password each time the application is started.
Which routine should you use?
A. CredReadDomainCredentials()
B. CredUIParseUserName()
C. CredUIPromptForCredentials()
D. LsaRegisterLogonProcess()
Answer: C

10. You are developing a user mode application that contains two processes.
You need to allow the two processes to synchronize access to a shared data area.
Which synchronization primitive should you use?
A. Critical Section
B. ERESOURCE
C. Mutex
D. Spinlock
Answer: C

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New updated MB7-838 questions and answers

August 26, 2009 — admin
MB7-838 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:100 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-26
Exam Number/Code: MB7-838
Exam Name: NAV 2009 Installation & Configuration

Microsoft Microsoft Business Solutions MB7-838 100Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and Microsoft Business Solutions product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for Microsoft Business Solutions MB7-838(NAV 2009 Installation & Configuration) examination of original title complete coverage.MB7-838 Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

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Exam : Microsoft MB7-838
Title : NAV 2009 Installation & Configuration

1. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. There’re several departments in your company. The account manager is working with the Classic client but he is new to it. On the contrary, he is experienced in working with the RoleTailored client. He is not clear about what tasks can be performed in the Classic client and he asks for your advice. Which tasks do you name?
A. Viewing graphical statistics
B. Personalizing the user interface
C. Posting operational transactions
D. Development and administration tasks
Answer: CD

2. 0 has been installed throughout your company. Now the company has a new plan that is to implement Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 instead of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0. But at present you are connecting to external components by using the NAS component of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0. In working with external components using NAS in the two-tier architecture, which drawback does the Server tier in the three-tier architecture enable you to eliminate?
A. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of losses of data.
B. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of necessity to use the NAS user interface
C. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of limitation to only one process at a time.
D. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of overload of the database management system
Answer: C
4. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You publish Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 to a user, in order to make the deployment take effect on the user’s machine, what should he do? (choose more than one)
A. He is required to log off and back on.
B. He is required to restart the computer.
C. He is required to go to Add or Remove Programs and run the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation.
D. He is required to go to Add or Remove Programs and uninstall the previous version of Microsoft Dynamics NAV.
Answer: AC

3. When you do this, you must make sure that each division uses its own instance of the database server; users in one of the divisions are not bound to certain computers. So which deployment configuration do you suggest?
A. You suggest one GPO, One SDP,and one installation package
B. You suggest one GPO, Two SDPs, and one installation package.
C. You suggest two GPOs, Two SDPs, and two installation packages with different configuration files.
D. You suggest two GPOs, One SDP, and two installation packages with different configuration files.
Answer: D

4. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you are deploying Microsoft Dynamics 2009 with Windows Server Group Policy, where is it necessary to store the installation source? (choose more than one)
A. It’s necessary to store the installation source on a local CD/DVD.
B. It’s necessary to store the installation source on a network share
C. It’s necessary to store the installation source in a folder on a local hard disk
D. It’s necessary to store the installation source on the computer running Windows Server.
Answer: B

5. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. The options below are statements about deploying Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 by assigning it to a user. Do you know which is not true? (choose more than one)
A. The application is advertised on the users desktop.
B. The user opens Add or Remove Programs to run the installation.
C. The system must be restarted for the deployment to take effect
D. RoleTailored client is started automatically after the installation
Answer: BC

6. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you have to install Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 in the network. During the deployment, you use one software distribution point and publish the installation package to the group policy objects. But an employee named Jason reports that he still does not have Microsoft Dynamics NAV installed. So what is the reason for this?
A. This is because the installation package is corrupted
B. This is because the software distribution point is not accessible.
C. This is because the corresponding group policy object does not run
D. This is because the client computers do not meet the minimum requirements for the installation.
Answer: C

7. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirement of your company, you have to deploy Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. In the options below, which step is required by the published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment? (choose more than one)
A. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires restarting the computer running Windows Server
B. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires logging off and on or restarting the client computers.
C. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires copying the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation package to client computers
D. A published Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 deployment requires running the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation from Add or Remove Programs on the client computers
Answer: BD

8. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirements of your company, you have to deploy Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. After this is done, you’re notified by the manager that the company wants to continue using the Classic client. In the three tier environment, how do you connect the Classic client to the database?
A. You specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server tier is installed and the port number in the customsettings.config file
B. In the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server is installed.
C. In the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client with Microsoft SQL Server option, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft SQL Server is installed
D. In Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 Classic client with Microsoft SQL Server option, go to File, Database, Open, and in the Server Name field, specify the name of the computer where Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server tier is installed.
Answer: C

9. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You have Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installed throughout your company. Now you set up a test instance of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009, Classic client option, while importing no custom license or database files. . You test the application and then uninstall it.
After you uninstall the application, which components remain? (choose more than one)
A. After the application itself is uninstalled, License files (for example, fin.flf) remain.
B. After the application itself is uninstalled, Database files (for example, demo database) remain
C. After the application itself is uninstalled, Configuration files (for example, customsettings.config)remain.
D. After the application itself is uninstalled, Software prerequisites (for example, Microsoft .NET Framework) remain
Answer: BD

10. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the Developer for Microsoft Dynamics NAV. According to the requirements of your company manager, Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0 has been installed throughout your company. Now the company has a new plan that is to implement Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 instead of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0. But at present you are connecting to external components by using the NAS component of Microsoft Dynamics NAV 5.0. In working with external components using NAS in the two-tier architecture, which drawback does the Server tier in the three-tier architecture enable you to eliminate?
A. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of losses of data.
B. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of necessity to use the NAS user interface
C. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of limitation to only one process at a time.
D. The Server tier in the three-tier architecture enables you to eliminate the drawback of overload of the database management system
Answer: C

11. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. There are two departments in your company, one is Sales department, another is Account department. The company manager assigns a task to you that you implement Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. When you do this, you must make sure that each division uses its own instance of the database server; users in one of the divisions are not bound to certain computers. So which deployment configuration do you suggest?
A. You suggest one GPO, One SDP,and one installation package
B. You suggest one GPO, Two SDPs, and one installation package.
C. You suggest two GPOs, Two SDPs, and two installation packages with different configuration files.
D. You suggest two GPOs, One SDP, and two installation packages with different configuration files.
Answer: D

12. You work in an international company which is called Wikigo. And you’re employed as the developer of Microsoft Dynamics NAV. You publish Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 to a user, in order to make the deployment take effect on the user’s machine, what should he do? (choose more than one)
A. He is required to log off and back on.
B. He is required to restart the computer.
C. He is required to go to Add or Remove Programs and run the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 installation.
D. He is required to go to Add or Remove Programs and uninstall the previous version of Microsoft Dynamics NAV.
Answer: AC

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New updated 352-001 questions and answers

August 21, 2009 — admin
352-001 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:240 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-21
Exam Number/Code: 352-001
Exam Name: ADVDESIGN

Cisco CCDE 352-001 240Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and CCDE product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for CCDE 352-001(ADVDESIGN) examination of original title complete coverage.352-001 Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

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Exam : Cisco 352-001
Title : ADVDESIGN

1. The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available.
Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Answer: C

2. What is the way that an OSPF ABR uses to prevent summary route information from being readvertised from an area into the network core (Area 0)?
A. It advertises only inter-area summaries to the backbone.
B. It uses poison reverse and split horizon.
C. It only sends locally originated summaries to the backbone.
D. It compares the area number on the summary LSA to the local area.
Answer: C

3. Which VPN management feature would be considered to ensure that the network had the least disruption of service when making topology changes?
A. dynamic reconfiguration
B. path MTU discovery
C. auto setup
D. remote management
Answer: A

4. 1.5.1 arrives at TIS-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take TIS-R2.
B. It will not take any path. TIS-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take TIS-R3.
D. It will load share between TIS-R2 and TIS-R3.
Answer: A
8. You are the Cisco Network Designer in certways.com. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Answer: BD
9. The IGP next-hop reachability for a BGP route is lost but a default route is available.
Assuming that BGP connectivity is maintained, what will happen to the BGP route?
A. It will be put in a hold-down state by BGP until the next hop has been updated.
B. It will be removed from the BGP table.
C. It will be considered a valid route.
D. It will be considered invalid for traffic forwarding.
Answer: C

5. The TIS company is deploying OSPF on a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay network. The remote sites needn??t to communicate with each other and there are a relatively small number of sites (scaling is not a concern).
How to configure OSPF for this topology in order to minimize the additional routing information injected into the network and keep the configuration size and complexity to a minimum?
A. Configure the link as OSPF nonbroadcast and manually configure each of the remote sites as a neighbor.
B. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure the hub router to always be the designated router.
C. Configure the link as OSPF broadcast and configure a mesh group towards the remote routers.
D. Configure the link at the hub router as OSPF point-to-multipoint and at the remote routers as OSPF point-to-point.
Answer: B

6. Lafeyette Productions is looking for a new ISP that has improved availability, load balancing, and catastrophe protection. Which type of ISP connectivity solution would be best?
A. single run
B. multi-homed
C. stub domain EBGP
D. direct BGP peering
Answer: B

7. NetFlow provides valuable information about network users and applications, peak usage times, and traffic routing. Which function is of NetFlow?
A. monitor configuration changes
B. monitor CPU utilization
C. monitor link utilization
D. generate traps for failure conditions
Answer: C

8. Connecting an IS-IS router to four links and redistributing 75 routes from RIP.
How many LSPs will be originated by this router?
A. one LSP: containing the router information, internal routes, and external routes
B. six LSPs: one for each link, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
C. two LSPs: one containing router information and internal routes and one containing external routes
D. three LSPs: one containing all links, one containing router information, and one containing external routing information
Answer: A

9. How many broadcast segments are contained in this network according to the exhibit?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

10. You are the Cisco Network Designer in certways.com. Which two characteristics are most typical of a SAN? (Choose two.)
A. NICs are used for network connectivity.
B. Servers request specific blocks of data.
C. Storage devices are directly connected to servers.
D. A fabric is used as the hardware for connecting servers to storage devices.
Answer: BD

11. What is high availability?
A. redundant infrastructure
B. clustering of computer systems
C. reduced MTBF
D. continuous operation of computing systems
Answer: D

12. According to the network in this exhibit, traffic directed towards 10.1.5.1 arrives at TIS-R4. Which path will the traffic take from here?
A. It will take TIS-R2.
B. It will not take any path. TIS-R4 will drop the traffic.
C. It will take TIS-R3.
D. It will load share between TIS-R2 and TIS-R3.
Answer: A

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New updated EX0-100 questions and answers

August 21, 2009 — admin
EX0-100 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:120 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-21
Exam Number/Code: EX0-100
Exam Name: ITIL Foundation Certificate In It Service Management(Exin)

EXIN,Inc EXIN Inc Certification EX0-100 120Q&As are created by senior IT lecturers in Certinside certification Q&A network and EXIN Inc Certification product experts combination PROMETRIC or VUE true-to-date environmental examination of the original title.
The Questions & Answers cover the latest real test and with all the correct answer.we promise the Q&A for EXIN Inc Certification EX0-100(ITIL Foundation Certificate In It Service Management(Exin)) examination of original title complete coverage.EX0-100 Questions & Answers help you pass the exam.

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Exam : EXIN EX0-100
Title : ITIL Foundation Certificate In It Service Management(Exin)

1. Which of the following processes provides Problem Management with reports about the IT infrastructure?
A. Financial Management for IT Services
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
Answer: C

2. Which Change Management activity indicates the priority and category of an accepted Request for Change (RFC)?
A. classification
B. coordination
C. registration
D. scheduling
Answer: A

3. Where can you find an overview of all IT services?
A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)
B. Service Catalog
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Window
Answer: B

4. Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. ensuring the smooth running of the process
B. setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
C. channeling data to Problem Management
D. following up on Incidents
Answer: A

5. When an IT service provider adopts and adapts ITIL?best practices, which of the following is the greatest benefit?
A. Work is carried out using a project-oriented approach.
B. There is a central Service Desk.
C. The organization is more customer-oriented.
D. Work is carried out using a process-oriented approach.
Answer: D

6. Which information does Financial Management for IT Services extract from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. which equipment is being used by whom
B. where the equipment has been set up
C. which software version is being used
D. which equipment is causing incidents
Answer: A

7. Which process includes developing a recovery plan?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Problem Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

8. Certain data is needed to describe an ITIL?process. This includes the objectives and the output. What else is required?
A. activities
B. authorisations
C. environment
D. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
Answer: A

9. Which item is required in the Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a Change?
A. whether the Change has achieved the intended goal
B. whether the CI registration in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) is up-to-date
C. whether the Management of the IT department is satisfied with the implementation of the Change
D. to which Configuration Items (CIs) the Change relates
Answer: A

10. Which of the following is not regarded as an incident?
A. a complaint about the service of the Service Desk
B. a standard request for change
C. a report of a breakdown
D. a question about how an application works
Answer: B

11. How does Problem Management differ from Incident Management?
A. Incident Management focuses on registration and Problem Management does not.
B. Problem Management focuses on restoration of service and Incident Management focuses on finding the cause.
C. Incident Management focuses on restoration of service and Problem Management focuses on finding the cause.
D. Problem Management generates reports and Incident Management does not.
Answer: C

12. What is produced when Problem Management identifies the cause of a Problem and a workaround?
A. a Request for Change
B. a resolved Problem
C. a Known Error
D. one or more resolved incidents
Answer: C

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New updated PK1-003 questions and answers

August 18, 2009 — admin
PK1-003 braindumps Description
Questions and Answers:240 Q&As

Updated: 2009-08-18
Exam Number/Code: PK1-003
Exam Name: CompTIA Project+ Certification (BETA Exam)

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Exam : CompTIA PK1-003
Title : CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam

1. Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

2. Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS) schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

3. A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

4. Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

5. A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

6. Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

7. Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

8. Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies for a given project.
Answer: C

9. The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

10. A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

11. A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

12. Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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